NR661 – APN Capstone Practicum Papers

NR661 – APN Capstone Practicum Papers

NR661 – APN Capstone Practicum Papers

March 2021

Finally the last class!!!

– This may change depending on when you are registered to the class. NR661 – APN Capstone Practicum Papers

I initially didn’t want to go to the review session as I didn’t plan to take the board exam. I am continuing to another school for PMHNP. Hence, I actually started to work on the Alternative assignment. Thankfully my procrastination saved me as I only did the first 3 pages of the entire assignment.
At the last moment, I decided to go because the flight was only $115 to Chicago from LAX! I couldn’t believe the price. Maybe because of the Coronavirus? Hum… Anyhow, with 20 hours of clinical hour credit and not doing the alternative assignment which could be 50-100 pages of typing, going to the review session sounded more appealing than when the ticket price was $400+.

But for those who are considering the alternative assignment, here is the info.
Here is the rubric () for the alternative assignment.

Anyhow, here goes my NR661 journey.

Intensive review
Below is the agenda. Dates will be different but the event starts on Sunday. Here is the .

If you are not staying in Q Center, then your DayPass is $81.40/day. So, you are paying $162.80 for the pass, that is if you are not staying for the optional day.

Practicum logging
I just clarified with my instructor regarding the expectation of practicum logging, and according to the instructor, as long as I see 2 patients/hour, he is ok with it. I think I have an angel for the last class! Make sure to check with your instructor before you start to log any hours. In NR661, you are only required to log 105 hours instead of 125 hours. This is because you get 20 hour-credits for attending the APEA review sessions. NR661 – APN Capstone Practicum Papers

APEA Review Schedule
Note: You can watch the review video up to two times.
Make sure to reach your instructor regarding QBank. Some instructors will come up with their own and require you to get 100% on QBank in the exam mode. Below is one of the students whose instructor requiring QBank.

Yes, my professor said all qbank questions must be completed in each subject in exam mode or it is an automatic fail at the end if we cannot get our completion certificate.

My instructor stated that QBank is “recommended but not required”. Below is my instructor’s response regarding QBank.

The QBank questions are not required per se, but recommended. But you have to submit your first 150 question practice exam you take each week for a grade starting in Week 2.

So, check with your instructor.

Week 1  review topics

• Introduction, Antibiotics (Part 1-3)
• EENT Disorders (Part 1-3)

 practice questions

• Practice EENT Subject Area Questions, plus Mixed Content Practice Questions

Week 2  review topics

• Pediatrics Section 1 (Part 1-5)
• Pediatrics Section 2 (Part 1-4)
• Growth and Development (Part 1-4)

 practice questions

• Practice Pediatric Subject Area Questions
• Practice Health Promotion Subject Area Questions, plus Mixed Content Practice Questions

Week 3  review topics

• Hematology Disorders (Part 1-5)
• Orthopedic Disorders (Part 1-4)
• Dermatological Disorders (Part 1-4)

 practice questions

• Practice Hematology Subject Area Questions
• Practice Orthopedic Subject Area Questions
• Practice Dermatology Subject Area Questions, plus Mixed Content Practice Questions

Week 4  review topics

• GI Disorders (Part 1-3)
• Endocrine Disorders (Part 1-4)

 practice questions

• Practice GI Subject Area Questions
• Practice ENdocrine Subject Area Questions, plus Mixed Content Practice Questions

Week 5  review topics

• Neurology Disorders (Part 1-3)
• Mood Disorders (Part 1-3)

 practice questions

• Practice Neurology Subject Area Questions
• Practice Psychiatry Subject Area Questions, plus Mixed Content Practice Questions

Week 6  review topics

• Cardiovascular Disorders (Part 1-4)
• Pulmonary Disorders (Part 1-4)

 practice questions

• Practice Cardiovascular Subject Area Questions
• Practice Pulmonary Subject Area Questions, plus Mixed Content Practice Questions

Week 7  review topics

• Men’s Health (Part 1-2)
• Women’s Health (Part 1-4)
• Urological Disorders/STIs (Part 1-4)
• Pregnancy (Part 1-3)

 practice questions

• Practice Men’s Subject Area Questions
• Practice Women’s Health Subject Area Questions
• Urology Subject Area Questions
• STI Subject Area Questions
• Pregnancy Subject Area Questions, plus Mixed Content Practice Questions

Week 8  review topics

• Primary Care Procedures
• Exam Strategy

 practice questions – Random practice exam

• Random Practice Exams

APEA exam score x 0.3 = course score

Week 2 to 7, APEA practice exam worth 30 points each with 150 questions, and it doesn’t have to be done in one sitting.

You will have to complete the 2 practice questions and the evaluation at the end in order for you to get to completion certificate.NR661 – APN Capstone Practicum Papers

Week 1: Certification Review Plan Assignment
Trust me. After you read the assignment guideline, you will be amazed by how tedious and useless the assignment is. I would rather spend the time actually studying for the board exam rather than doing the assignment. Enough of my rant… =p

In the NR603, you took the APEA exam and based on the result of the exam, you will be doing the assignment. You will pick 4 weakest topics from the APEA exam and 2 concentration areas. The concentration area is on the bottom of your exam score page (assessment, diagnostic, etc.).

You will be making a table for the assignment shown below.

Good luck with working on the “Learning Activities” part where you are not supposed to repeat the same contents on different “Learning Goal” part. 6 learning goals and 6 learning activities. That’s 36 different ways that you have to come up with “Learning Activities”. lol

Nothing but just time-consuming…

Don’t forget to capture the score from the APEA exam and add it to the assignment at the end.

You know. That’s not the end of week 1. lol

I am more amazed! For 10 points, you are not only required to post a video presentation of your self-introduction video + writing something about PCMH but also need to post replies to 3 peers and answer all the questions posted by the instructor. For 10 POINTS! Wow… I really am amazed.

Week 2-3
Nothing specific besides the QBank.

Once you log in to the Qbank, you will see above. Blue one is the 150 question quiz that you need to turn in once a week. Some questions tend to repeat week after week so it would be good idea to practice through the other sections besides blue.

Week 4: VISE Assignment
This VISE assignment is quite different than before. You will be given  and the instructor will randomly select one. You are expected to be in front of a camera and use another person (husband, child, etc) in front of a camera to do the VISE. Be natural as if you are in your clinic and seeing a patient. When the VISE starts, your instructor will give you a scenario and you will begin the assessment. In my case, my instructor answered all my assessment questions. I utilized my wife and I assessed her according to what I believe the diagnosis is. Don’t be too alarmed as the scenario was very obvious for what the diagnosis was. As soon as my instructor completed the 1st sentence of the scenario, I knew what the diagnosis was. This may differ depending on your instructor. I heard from some people that their instructor asked many questions. The followings are some tips. NR661 – APN Capstone Practicum Papers

1. Depending on your instructor, he/she may let you use the internet for you to reference Epocrates.
2. As you will be able to take a note of the scenario on a paper, write the note on the 25 diagnoses list. This will make sure that you are getting correct medication and diagnostic tests. I would say this would also depend on your instructor.
3. Get a stethoscope, a penlight, a thermometer, and etc as you may need them while you are assessing.
4. Relax! You will be fine. =]

Week 5: APN Capstone Portfolio Part 1
I initially thought the assignment was given by mistake, and I actually questioned the assignment to my instructor. lol. The assignment was about reflection on DNP. Huh? DNP? I am not even considering that path and I am writing about DNP? Well, yes. The assignment is about writing DNP, how wonderful and exciting career it would be in a “complex healthcare system”. Well, don’t hold your breath yet, that’s not all.

The second part is writing a resume. There is an . Pretty straight forward.

The third part is making a profile on LinkedIn. I had a LinkedIn that I had for a long time. I asked if I can use the LinkedIn as is, my instructor was fine with it. Done!
Here is the link to  so that you can see how it looks like. My LinkedIn may change in time so… be aware. =p
I asked my instructor that I need to build LinkedIn as if I already am NP. My instructor said no. I think they just wanted to see LinkedIn account with the school name and related content.

Week 6: APN Capstone Portfolio Part 2
This is the assignment that will kill all other assignments in terms of the time and effort you have to invest in. I have been hearing from the previous classes that they were able to breeze through in a day. I couldn’t believe it. Later, I found out that the guideline for the assignment has been changed starting from my class. yay…..

Let’s start with example portfolios from school.
1. 
2. 

Basically, you are going to do the following.
Copy and paste your prior essay as an examplar.
Write a paragraph or so of Chamberlain Program Outcomes, AACN MSN Essentials, NONPF Core Competencies, and Reflection.
On the Connect part, you will come up with 2 keywords and define them. This is where you will find some scholarly resources for definitions.

Do above 10x and you are done.

It would look like above on the table of contents.

Below is the program outcome, AANC MSN Essentials, and NONPF Core Competencies.
To be honest, I don’t really know what I wrote. I don’t think I never BSed more than this assignment. I saw some other portfolios which were completed before my cohort and many had grammar errors and run-on sentences. Most of them told me that they got full credit. Many of them had somewhere 60 to 100 pages of portfolio. Out of all those pages, what you actually write is about 15 to 20 pages. I don’t care and I am done. Not going to look back! Turn that thing in and be free!!!!! No, the paper doesn’t go through the Turn-it-in system. NR661 – APN Capstone Practicum Papers

Week 7
Due to COVID-19 outbreak, the review session at Chicago was canceled. It was replaced with the online review session.

In week 7, you will see an assignment titled “Onground Intensive Review or Alternative Assignment”. This is where you will submit intensive review assignment or alternative assignment. For the intensive review assignment, you just need to write 3 paragraph or so about the intensive review. I don’t think anyone will copy and paste other person’s work on this but this is only one that will go through Turn-It-In. 200 points for this. However, it’s not due until week 8 as you won’t complete your intensive review until week 8.

Week 8
The final exam is the APEA exam. No, there is no specific study guide and exam questions are harder than very different from what you practiced from the QBank.

There are 2 completion certificates.
The first is for the video review session and the second is for the intensive review. For the video review session cerficiate, you can see those 2 practice exams from the beginning of the class.
The intensive review session certificate, you won’t see it until week 8. Around week 8, you will receive an email with below message.

To activate your Online Review Course Certificate    ( this is the one that must be uploaded into the Week 8: APEA Review Modules Completion Certificate Assignment)
·        Each CE video must have one viewing completed
·        The 2 sets of questions must be completed
·        The Evaluation must be completed to activate and download the certificate of completion

For the separate certificate for the Intensive Review
·        The 2 sets of questions must be completed
·        The Evaluation must be completed to activate and download the certificate of completion

Email message saying that the 2nd cerficate has to be completed. I was told by my instructor that the 2nd certificate is an optional, however, I also heard from some people that their instructor required them. So, check with your insturtor. There is no specific section in the module to submit the 2nd certificate.

Yes, there are 4 practice questions total. Good new is that the 2 sets of practice questions from online review and the 2 sets of practice questions from intensive review are exactly the same. Even better news, score doesn’t matter. =p. NR661 – APN Capstone Practicum Papers

Note. Below are Example Quiz Questions. These may NOT reflect the actual questions when you take the exam.

NR 661 Ears, Eyes, Nose, and Throat (EENT) Exam

NR 661 Ears, Eyes, Nose, and Throat Exam/Problems: NR661 – APN Capstone Practicum Papers

1. A 30 year old male has been …. with non-allergic rhinitis. What finding is more likely in non-allergic rhinitis than allergic rhinitis?
2. The throat swab done to identify Streptococcal infection was negative in a 12 year-old female with tonsillar exudate, fever, and sore throat. What statement is true regarding this?
3. What is the usual age for vision screening in young children?
4. Epstein-Barr virus is responsible for:
5. A patient with environmental allergies presents to your clinic. She takes an oral antihistamine every 24 hours. What is the most effective single maintenance medication for allergic rhinitis?
6. Conjunctivitis:
7. At what age would it … unusual to see thrush?
8. A patient presents with severe toothache. She reports sensitivity to heat and cold. There is visible pus around the painful area. What is this termed?
9. How long should a 6 year old with acute otitis media … treated with an antibiotic?
10. A patient is ….. with otitis externa. He complains of tragal pain, otic discharge, otic itching, and fever. What is the cardinal symptom of otitis externa?
11. A patient presents to a nurse practitioner clinic with paroxysmal sneezing, clear rhinorrhea, nasal congestion, facial pain. Which symptom below is NOT …. with allergic rhinitis?
12. An NP examines a screaming 2 year-old. A common finding is:
13. A patient …. with Strept throat received a prescription for azithromycin. She has not improved in 48 hours. What course of action is acceptable?
14. A 93 year-old demented adult … recently treated for an upper respiratory infection (URI) but drainage from the right nostril persists. What should the NP suspect?
15. A 32 year-old patient is a newly …. diabetic. She has developed a sinus infection. Her symptoms have persisted for 10 days. Six weeks ago she was treated with amoxicillin for an upper respiratory infection. It cleared without incident. What should … recommended today?
16. AV nicking may … identified in a patient with what disease?
17. When examining the vessels of the eye:
18. The nurse practitioner performs a fundoscopic exam on a patient who has recently been …. with hypertension. What is the significance of AV nicking?
19. A patient presents to clinic with a complaint of a red eye. Which assessment below rules out the most worrisome diagnoses?
20. Acute otitis media can …… by identifying which otic characteristic(s)?
21. A teenager with fever and pharyngitis has a negative rapid strept test. After 24 hours, the throat culture reveals “normal flora”. Which conclusion can … made?
22. A 61 year-old male presents with a 12-hour history of an extremely painful left red eye. The patient complains of blurred vision, haloes around lights, and vomiting. It began yesterday evening. On examination, the eye is red, tender and inflamed. The cornea is hazy and pupil reacts poorly to light. The most likely diagnosis in this patient is:
23. Which antihistamine is preferred for treating allergic rhinitis in an older adult?
24. In a patient who is …. with mastoiditis, which of the following is most likely?
25. A patient who presents with a complaint of sudden decreased visual acuity has a pupil that is about 4 mm, fixed. The affected eye is red. What might … the etiology?
26. Which of the following is most likely observed in a patient with allergic rhinitis?
27. A patient reports a penicillin allergy. What question regarding the allergy should the nurse practitioner ask to determine whether a cephalosporin can … safely prescribed?
28. A patient has been …. with mononucleosis. Which statement is correct?
29. At what age should screening for oral health begin?
30. A 70 year-old male has a yellowish, triangular nodule on the side of the iris. This is probably:
31. When does a child’s vision approximate 20/20?
32. The hearing loss associated with aging involves:
33. A patient has a penicillin allergy. He describes an anaphylactic reaction. Which medication class should … specifically avoided in him?
34. A 6 day-old has a mucopurulent eye discharge bilaterally. What historical finding explains the etiology of the discharge?
35. A patient describes a sensation that “there is a lump in his throat”. He denies throat pain. On exam of the throat and neck, there are no abnormalities identified. What is the most likely reason this occurs?
36. The most common cause of acute pharyngitis in children is:
37. Which of the following symptoms is more indicative of a bacterial sinusitis than viral?
38. A 2 month-old is …. with thrush. An exam of this patient’s saliva demonstrates all except:
39. A patient who is 52 years old presents to your clinic for an exam. You notice a yellowish plaque on her upper eyelid. It is painless. What should the NP assess?
40. An 80 year-old is having difficulty hearing. When the nurse practitioner examines him, she is unable to visualize the tympanic membrane because of cerumen impaction. This produces what kind of hearing loss?
41. The most common complication of influenza is:
42. The single most effective maintenance therapy for allergic rhinitis is:
43. In a patient with mononucleosis, which laboratory abnormality is most common?
44. An older adult has a cold. She calls your office to ask for advice for an agent to help her runny nose and congestion. She has hypertension, COPD, and glaucoma. What agent is safe to use?
45. A patient with diarrhea has a positive enzyme immunoassay for C. difficile. He is on clindamycin for a tooth abscess. How should he … managed?
46. A 3 year-old has been recently treated for an upper respiratory infection (URI) but drainage from the right nostril persists. What should the NP suspect?
47. What symptom triad is most commonly … with infectious mononucleosis?
48. Which of the following will decrease the risk of acute otitis media in a 6 month old?
49. A patient has nasal septal erosion with minor, continuous bleeding. There is macerated tissue. What is a likely etiology? NR661 – APN Capstone Practicum Papers
50. On routine exam, a 15 year-old patient’s tympanic membrane (TM) reveals a tiny white oblong mark just inferior to the umbo on the surface of the TM. The patient has no complaints of ear pain and gross hearing is intact. What is this?
51. A 70 year-old female states that she sees objects better by looking at them with her peripheral vision. She is examined and found to have a loss of central vision, normal peripheral vision, and a normal lens. This best characterizes:
52. A patient is …. with thrush. What might … found on microscopic exam?
53. A patient presents with tragal pain. What is the most likely diagnosis?
54. A 3 year-old has fluid in the middle ear that does not appear infected. The eardrum appears normal. This is referred to as:
55. A patient who is otherwise healthy states that he woke up this morning and has been unable to hear out of his left ear. The Weber and Rinne tests were performed. What is the primary reason for doing this?
56. A patient presents to a nurse practitioner clinic with paroxysmal sneezing, clear rhinorrhea, nasal congestion, facial pain. Which symptom below is NOT … with allergic rhinitis?
57. A patient with environmental allergies presents to your clinic. She takes an oral antihistamine every 24 hours. What is the most effective single maintenance medication for allergic rhinitis?
58. A patient stated that his ears felt stopped up. He pinched his nose and blew through it forcefully. The nurse practitioner …. a ruptured left tympanic membrane. What would indicate this?
59. Which long-acting antihistamine listed below is sedating?
60. A patient presents to your clinic with a painless red eye. Her vision is normal, but her sclera has a blood red area. What is this termed?
61. What clinical finding necessitates an urgent referral of the patient to an emergency department?
62. A 4 year-old was … and treated for left acute otitis media 4 weeks ago. She is here today for a well-child visit. There is an effusion in the left ear. She denies complaints. How should this … managed?
63. A 32 year-old patient is a newly …. diabetic. She has developed a sinus infection. Her symptoms have persisted for 10 days. Six weeks ago she was treated with amoxicillin for an upper respiratory infection. It cleared without incident. What should … recommended today?
64. A 3 year-old has been … with acute otitis media. She is penicillin allergic (Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction). How should she … managed?
65. A patient with mononucleosis has pharyngitis, fever, and ymphadenopathy. His symptoms started 3 days ago.
66. Swimmer’s ear is …. in a patient with tragal tenderness. What other symptom might he have?
67. A teenager with fever and pharyngitis has a negative rapid strept test. After 24 hours, the throat culture reveals “normal flora”. Which conclusion can … made?
68. A 4 month-old infant has thrush. The mother is breastfeeding. She reports that her nipples have become red, irritated, and sensitive. What should the nurse practitioner advise the mother of this baby to treat thrush?
69. A 2 year-old has a sudden onset of high fever while at daycare. The daycare attendant describes a seizure in the child. The child is brought to the clinic; neurologically he appears normal. His body temperature is 99.9 degrees F after receiving ibuprofen. He is …. with otitis media. How should the nurse practitioner manage this?
70. Most commonly, epistaxis occurs:
71. A patient with a bacterial sinusitis cannot spread this to others via:
72. A patient with allergic rhinitis developed a sinus infection 10 days ago. He takes fexofenadine daily. What should … done with the fexofenadine?
73. A tympanic membrane (TM) is erythematous. Which factor …. is NOT the cause of an erythematous TM?
74. A nurse practitioner performs a fundoscopic exam. He identifies small areas of dull, yellowish-white coloration in the retina. What might these …?
75. A 4 year-old child with otitis media with effusion:
76. A 39 year-old has a sudden onset of a right red eye. He reports sensitivity to light and the sensation of a foreign body, though his history for a foreign body is negative. He does not wear contact lenses. How should the NP manage this?
77. Which medication …. ototoxic?
78. A 6 month-old infant has a disconjugate gaze. The nurse practitioner observes that the 6 month old tilts his head when looking at objects in the room. Which statement is true?
79. What are the most common signs and symptoms … with mononucleosis?
80. A patient who is 65 years old states that she has “hayfever” and has had this since childhood. What agent could … safely used to help with rhinitis, sneezing, pruritis, and congestion?
81. Papilledema is noted in a patient with a headache. What is the importance of papilledema in this patient?
82. 70 year-old patient in good health is found to have a large, white plaque on the oral mucosa of the inner cheek. There is no pain … with this. What is a likely diagnosis?
83. What medication should always … avoided in patients with mononucleosis?
84. A common complaint in older patients who have cataracts is:
85. Arcus senilis is described as:
86. Acute otitis media can …… by identifying which otic characteristic(s)?
87. An infant is brought to the nurse practitioner because his gaze is asymmetrical. Which finding indicates a need for referral to ophthalmology?
88. A patient …. given amoxicillin for 8 days for sore throat. Today, the patient has developed a pruritic full body rash and …. with penicillin allergy. What describes the skin manifestations of penicillin allergy?
89. How should the class effect of the nasal steroids … described?
90. A 70 year-old presents urgently to the nurse practitioner clinic with angioedema. This began less than an hour ago. He is breathing without difficulty. What medication may have caused this?
91. Group A Strept pharyngitis:
92. A 45 year-old patient describes a spinning sensation that has occurred intermittently for the past 24 hours. It is …… by position changes like rolling over in bed. During these episodes, he complains of intense nausea. Which symptom is most characteristic of vertigo with a peripheral etiology?
93. A contact lens wearer presents with an erythematous conjunctiva. He denies blurred vision. There is scant drainage and crusting around the eye. He reports that there was crusting when he woke up this morning. How should the exam begin?
94. A patient has been …. with acute rhinosinusitis. Symptoms began 3 days ago. Based on the most likely etiology, how should this patient … managed?
95. Which statement about serous otitis media is correct?
96. A patient has 2 palpable, tender, left pre-auricular nodes that are about 0.5 cm in diameter. What might also …. found in this patient?
97. A 70 year-old patient has begun to have hearing loss. She relates that her elderly parents had difficulty hearing. Which complaint below is typical of presbycusis?

NR 661 Dermatology-Skin Disorders Test, Questions, NR661 – APN Capstone Practicum Papers

• A 16 year-old male has nodulocystic acne. What might have the greatest positive impact in managing his acne?
• An infant is …. with diaper dermatitis. Satellite lesions are visible. This should … treated with a:
  moisture barrier like zinc oxide.
• A patient who is at high risk for skin cancer should:
• The nurse practitioner identifies satellite lesions in a 6 month-old infant. These are:
• A “herald patch” is a hallmark finding in which condition?
• A 10 year-old has thick, demarcated plaques on her elbows. Which features are suggestive of psoriasis?
• Johnson is a 74 year old who presents with a pearly-domed nodular looking lesion on the back of the neck. It does not hurt or itch. What is a likely etiology?
• Impetigo is characterized by:
• A patient exhibits petechiae on both lower legs but has no other complaints. How should the NP proceed?
• A 74 year-old is …. with shingles. The NP is deciding how to best manage her care. What should … prescribed?
• A patient has been with MRSA. She is sulfa allergic. Which medication could … used to treat her?
• A patient calls your office. He states that he just came in from the woods and discovered a tick on his upper arm. He states that he has removed the tick and the area is slightly red. What should he … advised?
• What is the proper technique to safely remove a tick from a human?
• The most common place for basal cell carcinoma to … found is the:
• 28 year-old has thick, demarcated plaques on her elbows. Which features are suggestive of psoriasis?
• An example of a premalignant lesion that develops on sun-damaged skin is:
• A 70 year-old is …. with multiple cherry angiomas. The nurse practitioner knows that:
• The American Cancer Society uses an ABCDE pneumonic to help patients develop awareness of
• A patient who is at high risk for skin cancer should:
• Which of the following areas of the body has the greatest percutaneous absorption?
• topical treatment for basal cell carcinoma is:
• What finding characterizes shingles?
• Hand-foot-and-mouth disease and herpangina:
• A patient who has been in the sun for the past few weeks is very tanned. He has numerous 3-6 mm light colored flat lesions on his trunk. What is the likely etiology?
• A patient is …. with tinea pedis. A microscopic examination of the sample taken from the infected area would likely demonstrate:
• A pregnant mother in her first trimester has a 5 year-old who has Fifth Disease. What implication does this have for the mother?
• A patient presents with small vesicles on the lateral edges of his fingers and intense itching. On close inspection, there are small vesicles on the palmar surface of the hand. What is this called?
• A patient will … taking oral terbinafine for fingernail fungus. The NP knows that:
• The nurse practitioner examines a patient who has had poison ivy for 3 days. She asks if she can spread it
• A 6 year-old patient with sore throat has coryza, hoarseness, and diarrhea. What is the likely etiology?
• A 40 year-old female patient presents to the clinic with multiple, painful reddened nodules on the anterior surface of both legs. She is ….. with her history of:
• What advice should … given to a parent who has a child with Fifth Disease?
• Which test is NOT suitable to diagnose shingles if the clinical presentation is questionable?
• A 68 year old female adult with pendulous breasts complains of “burning” under her right breast. The nurse practitioner observes a malodorous discharge with mild maceration under both breasts. What is this?
• A patient has suspected scarlet fever. He likely has a sandpaper rash and:
• A 4 year-old has been …. with measles. The nurse practitioner identifies Koplik’s spots. These are:
• A patient presents with plaques on the extensor surface of the elbows, knees, and back. The plaques are erythematous and there are thick, silvery scales. This is likely:
• A 15 year-old male has worked this summer as a lifeguard at a local swimming pool. He complains of itching in the groin area. He is …. with tinea cruris. The nurse practitioner is likely to identify:
• A 6 year-old has been … with Lyme disease. Which drug should … used to treat him?
• When can a child with chickenpox return to daycare?
• The agent commonly used to treat patients with scabies is permethrin. How often is it applied to eradicate scabies?
• A 16 year-old has been with Lyme disease. Which drug should … used to treat him?
• A 60 year-old patient is noted to have rounding of the distal phalanx of the fingers. What might have
• Which of the following lesions never blanches when pressure is applied?
• Patients with atopic dermatitis are likely to exhibit:
• A patient has been …. with scabies. What is the medication of choice to treat this?
• Which of the following antibiotics may increase the likelihood of photosensitivity?
• The term caput succedaneum refers to:
• A patient is found to have koilonychia. What laboratory test would … prudent to perform?
• Which of the following skin lesions in the elderly is a premalignant condition?
• A key component of the approach to a patient who has atopic dermatitis is hydration. Which agent should … avoided?
• A child has 8-10 medium brown café au lait spots > 1 cm in diameter. The differential diagnosis should
• Which chronic skin disorder primarily affects hairy areas of the body?
• The primary therapeutic intervention for patients who present with hives is:
• A patient has a “herald patch” and is …. with pityriasis rosea. Where is the “herald patch” found?
• An adolescent has acne. The nurse practitioner prescribed a benzoyl peroxide product for him. What
• An example of a first generation cephalosporin used to treat a skin infection is:
• A 9 year-old has been ….. with chickenpox. A drug that should … avoided in him is:
• A patient has a lower leg wound that appears infected. It is red, warm to touch and edematous. He had an acute onset of pain, symptoms, and low grade fever. What is this? NR661 – APN Capstone Practicum Papers
• The main difference between cellulitis and erysipelas is the:
• Most cases of atopic dermatitis exacerbation are treated with:
• The best way to evaluate jaundice associated with liver disease is to observe:
• A 3 year-old female had a fever of 102 degrees F for 3 days. Today she woke up from a nap and is afebrile.
• A patient was with hot water. He has several large fluid filled lesions. What are these termed?
• A patient reports that he found a tick on himself about one month ago…… He did not seek treatment at the time. Today he
• The lesions seen in a patient with folliculitis might … filled with:
• 9 year-old female has presented to your clinic because of a rash on the left, upper area of her anterior trunk. She is embarrassed and very reticent to lift her blouse because her nipple will ….. How should the NP proceed?
• An adolescent takes isotretinoin for nodulocystic acne. She is on oral contraceptives. Both were …. by the dermatologist. The adolescent arrives in your clinic with a sinus infection. Her temperature is 99.5 degrees F and her blood pressure is 160/100. How should this … managed?
• The most common form of skin cancer is:
• A 74 year-old male patient has sustained a laceration to his foot. His last tetanus shot was more than 10 years ago. He has completed the primary series. What should … recommended?
• The nurse practitioner is examining a 3-month old infant who has normal development. She has identified an alopecic area at the occiput. What should … done?
• A patient with a primary case of scabies was …..:
• A child with a sandpaper textured rash probably has:
• Topical 5-fluorouracil (5-FU) is used to treat:
• A microscopic examination of the sample taken from a skin lesion indicates hyphae. What type infection might this indicate?
• The Western blot is positive. How should he … managed?
• A patient has used a high potency topical steroid cream for years to treat psoriasis exacerbations when they occur. She presents today and states that this cream “just doesn’t work anymore.” What word describes this?
• A 71 year-old female presents with a vesicular rash that burns and itches. Shingles is ….. An oral antiviral:
• A patient has seborrheic dermatitis. Which vehicle would … most appropriate to use in the hairline area to treat this?
• A patient reports to the minor care area of the emergency department after …. bitten by a dog. The patient states that the dog had a tag around his neck and …. roaming around the neighborhood. The dog did not exhibit any odd behavior. How should this … managed?
• A skin lesion fluoresces under a Wood’s lamp. What microscopic finding is consistent with this?
• A skin disorder has a hallmark finding of silvery scales. What word below describes this common condition?
• A young child has developed a circumferential lesion on her inner forearm. It is slightly raised, red and is pruritic. It is about 2.5 cm in diameter. This is probably related to:
• A skin lesion which is a solid mass is described as a:
• A patient with diabetes has a right lower leg that has recently become edematous, erythematous, and tender to touch over the anterior shin. There is no evidence of pus, but the leg is warm to touch. What is the most likely diagnosis to consider?
• An elderly patient has been ….. with shingles on the right lateral aspect of her trunk. It appeared initially yesterday. It is very painful. How should she … managed?

NR 661 Endocrine Exam, Questions

• A patient has 2 non- fasting glucose values of 101 mg/dL and 114 mg/dL that were measured on 2 separate days in the same week. This patient:
• The most appropriate screen for diabetic nephropathy is:
• A 65 year-old diabetic has …. on oral anti-hyperglycemic agents and is still having poor glycemic control. His AM fasting glucoses range from 140s-160s. You decide to add insulin. He weighs 127 kilograms. What should the NP order as an initial starting dose?
• The most appropriate time to begin screening for renal nephropathy in a patient with Type 1 diabetes is:
• Which choice best describes the most common presentation of a patient with Type 2 diabetes?
• A recently diagnosed patient with type 2 diabetes presents today with fever and burning with urination. She is …. with a urinary tract infection (UTI). Her urine dipstick is positive for protein. Which statement is correct?
• A patient has …. prescribed pioglitazone. The nurse practitioner must remember to:
• A patient who is 73 years old was …. with diabetes several years ago. His A1C has remained elevated on oral agents and a decision to use insulin has …. made. What is the goal post prandial glucose for him?
• Hyperthyroidism may affect the blood pressure:
• Metformin is a good choice for many older adults with type 2 diabetes. What should … monitored carefully?
• Which laboratory abnormality very commonly accompanies hypothyroidism?
• What is the earliest detectable glycemic abnormality in a patient with Type 2 diabetes?
• A 55-year-old female patient with diabetes has these fasting lipid values: Total cholesterol 200 mg/dL HDL 45 mg/dL LDL levels of 120 mg/dL Triglyceride 309 mg/dL According to American Diabetes Association (ADA) which patient lipid value(s) meet(s) the goal for this patient?
• LDL Cholesterol….What is Optimal levels:
• Total Cholesterol….What are the desirable levels
• HDL Cholesterol…what are low risk levels for females and males?
• Fasting Triglycerides…..what are the desirable levels for fasting triglycerides?
• Non-HDL Cholesterol
• A 69 year old adult with coronary artery disease is found to have hypothyroidism. Which dose of levothyroxine is …. appropriate for initial treatment?
• The most appropriate time to begin screening for renal nephropathy in a patient with Type 1 diabetes is:
• A patient who has …. treated for hypothyroidism presents for her annual exam. Her TSH is 14.1 (normal = 0.4- 3.8). She complains of weight gain and fatigue. How should the NP proceed?
• A pregnant patient took L-thyroxin prior to becoming pregnant. What should … done about the L-thyroxin now that she is pregnant? NR661 – APN Capstone Practicum Papers
• A patient presents with consistently elevated blood glucose before his evening meal. What choice below represents an insulin change that would improve his evening glucose? Current regimen: AM: 22u intermediate-acting insulin, 12u short-acting insulin PM: 10u intermediate-acting insulin, 8u short-acting insulin:
• A 37 year-old overweight male is …. today with Type II diabetes. His fasting glucose is 159 mg/dL. He is hyperlipidemic (LDL = 210 mg/dL) and hypertensive (146/102). What medications should … initiated today?
• Smith, an overweight 48 year-old male with undiagnosed type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to your clinic. Which symptom is least likely associated with type 2 diabetes mellitus?
• A diagnosis of Type 2 diabetes mellitus can be made:
• Which drug listed below is NOT associated with weight gain?
• A female patient has the following characteristics. Which one represents a risk factor for Type II diabetes?
• A patient with a past history of treatment for hyperthyroidism is most likely to exhibit:
• A 38 year-old male patient, thought to be in good health, presents to a primary care clinic. On routine exam the patient’s fasting blood sugar is 242 mg/dl. A repeat value after eating is 288 mg/dL. Which of the following is least helpful in the initial evaluation of this patient?
• In order to determine how much T4 replacement a patient needs to re-establish a euthyroid state, the nurse practitioner considers:
• A 76 year-old patient has fasting glucose values of 151 mg/dL and 138 mg/dL on different days. This patient:
• A patient has non-fasting glucose values of 110 mg/dL and 116 mg/dL. This patient:
• What is the most sensitive laboratory assay for screening and identifying the vast majority of ambulatory patients with primary hypothyroidism?
• Which medication used to treat diabetes is associated with diarrhea and flatulence?
• An 80 year-old patient who is overweight and sedentary has developed elevated, fasting glucose levels (142, 153, and 147 mg/dL). She was diagnosed with diabetes today. Considering her age, how should the nurse practitioner proceed?
• A patient has 2 non-fasting glucose values of 111 mg/dL and 124 mg/dL that were measured on 2 separate days in the same week. This patient:
• A 45 year-old female patient has a screening TSH performed. Her TSH value is 13 mU/L. It was repeated in one week and found to be 15 mU/L. What explains this finding?
• A 78 year-old has …. diagnosed with diabetes about 10 years ago. An older adult with a hypoglycemic episode is more likely to exhibit:
• A 52 year-old presents with symptoms of diabetes today. His glucose is 302 mg/dL. How should this …. managed today?
• A patient with newly diagnosed Type 2 diabetes asks what his target blood pressure should …. The most correct response is:
• A female patient has the following characteristics. Which one represents the greatest risk factor for development of Type II diabetes?
• A nurse practitioner has decided to initiate insulin in a patient who takes oral diabetic medications. How much long acting insulin should … initiated in a patient who weighs 100 kg?
• A patient who is diagnosed today with diabetes has microalbuminuria. What can … concluded about this finding?
• What is the AM fasting glucose goal for a 75 year-old patient who has diabetes?
• A 55-year-old female patient with diabetes has these fasting lipid values: Total cholesterol 200 mg/dL HDL 45 mg/dL LDL levels of 120 mg/dL Triglyceride 309 mg/dL This patient’s Hgb A1c was measured. It is 9.2%. What is the relationship between Hgb A1c and this patient’s lipid values?
• A 30 year-old female patient who complains of fatigue has a screening TSH performed. Her TSH value is 8 mU/L. What should … done next?
• A patient who is taking long acting insulin basal insulin has elevated blood sugars. Which blood sugars are important to review in order to increase the dose of insulin?
• A patient has …. diagnosed today with Type II diabetes. A criterion for diagnosis is:
• Jones, a patient with type 2 diabetes, brings his obese 15 year old son in to see the nurse practitioner. You examine the 15 year-old son and identify acanthosis nigricans. This probably indicates:
• A patient has fatigue, weight loss, and a TSH of .05. What is his likely diagnosis?
• A 65 year-old patient presents to your clinic with evidence of hyperthyroidism. In assessing her cardiovascular status, what should the NP assess immediately?
• A female patient has the following characteristics. Which one represents a risk factor for development Type 2 diabetes?
• A diabetic patient with proteinuria (approximately 1 g/d) has …. placed on an ACE inhibitor. How soon can the anti-proteinuric effect of the ACE inhibitor … realized in this patient?
• A patient with hypothyroidism has …. in a euthyroid state for several years. On screening, her TSH is elevated. The most likely cause of this is:
• A female patient has the following characteristics. Which one represents a risk factor for Type II diabetes?
• When the serum free T4 concentration falls:
• Undiagnosed diabetes may present as:
• A patient … 2 fasting glucose values of 101 mg/dL and 114 mg/dL that were measured on 2 separate days in the same week. This patient:
• A patient has …. diagnosed with Grave’s disease. He is likely to have:
• Ideally, a patient should have a fasting glucose that is:
• The most appropriate time to begin screening for renal nephropathy in a patient with Type 2 diabetes is:

NR 661 HIPAA Quiz: Questions. NR661 – APN Capstone Practicum Papers

True/False & Explanatory:

1. Each healthcare agency and provider must have policies and procedures for maintaining the privacy of Protected Health Information (PHI).
2. Under the HIPAA privacy rule, it is illegal to:
3. Healthcare agencies must have policies that provide guidelines for:
4. Patients have a right to:
5. Health care operations are defined as activities considered in support of treatment and payment for which protected health information could … used or disclosed without individual authorizations.
6. “Minimum Necessary” means, when protected health information is used, disclosed, or requested, reasonable efforts must … taken to determine how much information will … sufficient to serve the intended purpose.
7. Privacy regulations cover use of disclosure of personal health information in the following format:
8. It is important to remember that you should … discuss patient information with anyone unless it is for an approved purpose.
9. It is important that patients understand how their healthcare providers and insurer protect their information.
10. Which of the following is a prodedure that protects the confidentiality of patient information?
11. It is the duty of every healthcare provider and agency to protect the confidentiality and privacy of patient healthcare information.
12. If you suspect a fellow employee of violating privacy policies, you should:
13. The Notice of Privacy Practices informs patients of their right to:
14. Knowingly releasing patient information can result in civil and/or criminal sanctions including fines and jail time.
15. Health Care Operations are described in the Notice of Private Practices (NPP).
16. “Minimum necessary” means, when PHI is used, disclosed, or requested, reasonable efforts must … taken to determine how much information will … sufficient to serve the intended purpose.
17. It is the duty of every healthcare provider to protect the confidentiality and privacy of patient health information.
18. While visiting his mother, Mrs. Jones’ son, a laboratory technician, notices that the hospital has an electronic health record system. He recognizes the software program and wants to see how it works. He sits down at an open computer and begins to look at the program. The nurse should:
19. An individual who wishes to file a complaint concerning a violation of privacy may:
20. White’s daughter is assisting her mother in maintaining a personal health record. She asks the record department of the hospital for copies of important documents from her mother’s medical records. Is the hospital …. to release this information to Mrs. White’s daughter? NR661 – APN Capstone Practicum Papers

NR 661 Men’s Health: Questions

1. Noninfectious epididymitis is common in:
2. A 65 year-old patient has a firm, non-tender, symmetrical enlarged prostate gland on examination. His PSA is 3.9 ng/mL. This probably indicates:
3. What symptom listed below might be seen in a male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia?
4. A patient with testicular torsion will have a:
5. What is the effect of digital rectal examination (DRE) on a male’s PSA (prostate specific antigen) level if it is measured on the same day as DRE?
6. Which of the following results in a clinically insignificant increase in the prostate specific antigen (PSA)?
7. 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors work by producing:
8. A localized tumor in the prostate gland associated with early stage prostate cancer is likely to produce:
9. A 22 year-old male who is otherwise healthy complains of scrotal pain. His pain has developed over the past 4 days. He is … with epididymitis. What is the most likely reason?
10. Hesselbach’s triangle forms the landmark for:
11. A 25 year-old male patient is training for a marathon. He reports an acute onset of scrotal pain after a 10 mile run. He has nausea and is found to have an asymmetric, high-riding testis on the right side. What should be suspected?
12. A 70 year-old male presents to your clinic with a lump in his breast. How should this be evaluated?
13. Digital rectal exam may be performed to assess the prostate gland. Which term does NOT describe a prostate gland that may have a tumor?
14. Rechecked?
15. A 50 year-old male comes to the nurse practitioner clinic for evaluation. He complains of fever 101F, chills, pelvic pain, and dysuria. He should be … with:
16. The following PSA levels have been observed in a patient. What conclusion can be made following these annual readings? Year 1: 3.2 ng/mL Year 2: 3.8 ng/mL Year 3: 4.2 ng/mL
17. What is the recommendation of American Cancer Society for initial screening of an African-American male for prostate cancer?
18. What class of medications can be used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia and provide immediate relief?
19. A common presentation of an inguinal hernia is:
20. Hematuria is not a common clinical manifestation in:
21. What is American Cancer Society’s recommendation for prostate screening in a 70 year-old male?
22. What is the recommendation from American Cancer Society for assessment of the prostate gland in a man who is 45 years old and of average risk for development of prostate cancer? He should have:
23. A male patient has epididymitis. His most likely complaint will be:
24. Which of the following medications should be avoided in a 65 year-old male with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
25. An elderly male patient is taking finasteride, a 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor. What affect might this have on his PSA level?
26. What is the recommendation of American Cancer Society for screening an average risk 40 year-old Caucasian male for prostate cancer?
27. According to ACS, Men should not be screened unless they have received this information. The discussion about screening should take place at:
    

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1. Which of the following is inconsistent with the description of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
2. When prescribing antihypertensive therapy for a man with BPH and hypertension, the NP considers that:
3. When assessing a 78-year-old man with suspected BPH, the NP considers that:
4. Which of the following medications can contribute to the development of acute urinary retention in an older man with BPH?
5. A 78-year-old man presents with a 3-day history of new-onset fatigue and difficulty with bladder emptying. Examination reveals a distended bladder but is otherwise unremarkable. Blood urea nitrogen level is 88 mg/dL (31.4 mmol/L); creatinine level is 2.8 mg/dL (247.5 μmol/L). T he most likely diagnosis is:
6. Surgical intervention in BPH should be considered with all of the following except:
7. Finasteride (Proscar, Propecia) and dutasteride (Avodart) are helpful in the treatment of BPH because of their effect on:
8. Tamsulosin (Flomax) is helpful in the treatment of BPH because of its effect on:
9. Concerning BPH, which of the following statements is true?
10. Concerning herbal and nutritional therapies for BPH treatment, which of the following statements is false?
11. You examine a 32-year-old man with chancroid and anticipate finding:
12. All of the following are typical findings for a patient with chancroid except:
13. the causative organism of chancroid is:
14. Treatment option for Chancroid includes includes all of the following except:
15. When ordering laboratory tests to confirm chancroid the NP considers that:
    

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1. Age of Initial Cervical Screening
2. Cervical Cancer
3. When do we stop PAP?
4. How often we screen for PAP?
5. Discontinue pap
6. Significant of T zone is where you find squamous cell dysplasia
7. Colposcopy Indicated
8. VULVOVAGINITIS
9. A patient has been … with vulvovaginal candidiasis. Which choices listed below are predisposing factors? Select all that apply? Not number 4. mmunocompetence
10. Patient symptoms: Normal (clear, white, odorless), PH: 4.0 to 4.5, Whiff: Negative, KOH: Negative
11. Diagnostic Studies:Candiadias

12. Management for Yeast or Candidias
13. Topical agent
14. Which treatment for vulvovaginal candidiasis relieves symptoms most rapidly?
15. Atrophic vaginitis
16. A 60 year old female has begun to have a small amount of blood escaping from the vagina. What is the most common cause of malignancy, when one is found?
17. Initially: Exam, EMB, US???
18. OSTEOPOROSIS
19. Which T-score reflects a patient with osteopenia
20. Osteoporosis Screening
21. Oral Bisphosphonates Considered first line for most patients with osteoperosis
22. Breast Masses
23. Screening for breast ca
24. Which choices below are causes of secondary dysmenorrhea? Select all that apply.
25. A 17 year old female is HIV positive. What is the recommendation for cervical screening for her?
26. Truck driver
27. BENIGN PROSTATIC HYPERPLASIA
28. At what age is the finding of benign prostatic hyperplasia most likely?
29. Documentation should include the following for BPH: NR661 – APN Capstone Practicum Papers
30. PSA
31. What are the major causes of an … serum PSA? Select all that apply
32. PSA Velocity = Rate of PSA change over time
    May be a good marker of detecting aggressive p
33. Management
34. ACUTEPROSTATITIS(Think Bacterial, consider STI)
35. Etiology
36. Assessment Findings for Bacterial prostatitis
37. Evaluation for acute prostatitis
38. Why should “gentle” prostate exam … performed in the setting of likely bacterial prostatitis? Select all that apply
39. Management on bacterial prostatitis
40. CHRONIC PROSTATITIS
41. Most men who are … with prostate cancer present with:
42. Assessment Findings
43. Screening for prostate cancer is most beneficial in men who
    not have a life expectancy of < 10 years.
44. American Cancer Society
45. EPIDIDYMITIS
46. Etiology of Epidymitis
47. Epididymitis
48. A 22 year old male patient presents with complaint of scrotal pain after a minor car accident. What must be part of the differential diagnosis?
49. Which factor … is NOT a risk factor for erectile dysfunction.
50. Why should “gentle” prostate exam … performed in the setting of likely bacterial prostatitis? Select all that apply
51. Management for acute prostatitis
52. CHRONIC PROSTAT

NR 661 Case Study, Questions

NR 661 Case Study Questions:

1. The nurse practitioner decides to study a group of patients who are trying to quit smoking. They all will be taking the same type of medication for 42 days to help them stop smoking. The patients have agreed to return to the clinic once weekly for the study’s duration. This type of study design is termed:
2. Which study listed below is considered an experimental study?
3. When is a child first able to stand on one foot?
4. Which finding below is typical in a patient with Bell’s palsy?
5. A person with 20/60 vision:
6. A patient has heavy menses. Which lab value below reflects an iron deficiency anemia?
7. A physically independent 75 year-old is living in an assisted living facility. She walks one mile daily on most days. She is beginning to have some memory issues but is otherwise healthy and takes only her “hormone”. She_is found to have asymptomatic bacteriuria. How should she … managed?
8. A patient who is 35 years old has identified a small, discrete mass in one breast. How should this … evaluated?

NR 661 Family Nurse Practitioner Boards Study Plan and Review

Head-to-Toe Review Schedule

1. Understanding Test Design and Preparation for Board Exam: 1 week
2. Health Promotion and Disease Prevention: 1 week
3. Neurological Disorders: 2 weeks
4. Dermatology/Skin Disorders: 1 week
5. Ears, Eyes, Nose, and Throat Problems: 2 weeks
6. Cardiovascular Disorders: 2 weeks
7. Respiratory Disorders: 2 weeks
8. Gastrointestinal Disorders: 2 weeks
9. Musculoskeletal Disorders: 2 weeks
10. Peripheral Vascular Disorders: 1 week
11. Endocrine Disorders: 1 week
12. Renal Disorders: 2 weeks
13. Hematological and Immunological Disorders: 2 week
14. Psychosocial Disorders: 2 weeks
15. Male Genitourinary System: 2 weeks
16. Female Genitourinary & Reproductive Systems: 2 weeks
17. Pregnancy/Childbearing: 1 week
18. Pediatric Growth and Development: 1 week
19. Geriatric Population: 1 week
20. Professional Issues: 1 week
    

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Resources: Books

1. Nurse Practitioner Certification Examination and Practice Preparation: Margaret A. Fitzgerald
2. Family Nurse Practitioner Certification, Intensive Review: Leik
3. Adult-gero and Family Nurse Practitioner questions, answers, and explanations: Hollier
4. Physical Examination and Health Assessment: Jarvis
   

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Online Resources

1. NR661 Capstone APNEA review modules, questions, and practice exams: July 4th– August 24th 2016
2. Fitzgerald online Qbank
3. Fitzgerald FREE webinar
4. APEA Website
5. FNP Q&A App (Leik)
   

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Live Courses

1. Margaret Fitzgerald Family Nurse Practitioner Live Review

NR 661 Women’s Health – Questions, NR661 – APN Capstone Practicum Papers

• What differentiates pelvic pain from abdominal pain?
• Primary amenorrhea may …. by age 15 years. What should …present for this diagnosis? Select all that apply.
• Primary Amenorrhea
• DYSMENORRHEA
• Primary Dysmenorrhea
• Secondary Dysmenorrhea
• Once Primary Dysmenorrhea is established…
• Pharm Management
• Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)
• Differential Diagnosis
• Diagnostic Studies
• Management for PCOS
• If pregnancy not desired
• If pregnancy desired
• Possible complications with PCOS
• A 4 year-old female is brought in to the clinic by her mother who reports that she is constantly scratching “her private part”. The patient states that it itches. On exam, the vagina is red and irritated. How should the NP proceed?
• Which form of birth control presents the highest risk to a female patient if she is exposed to a sexually transmitted disease (STD)?
• What choice below has no precautions for oral contraceptive pill use?
• Three of the following interventions are appropriately used to prevent osteoporosis after menopause. Which one is not?
• A 50 year-old female believes that she is “menopausal”. She complains of “hot flashes” and has not had menses in 12 months. Which of the following test results may … helpful for confirmation of menopause?
• An initial pharmacologic approach to a patient who is … with primary dysmenorrhea could ….:
• Clue cells are found in patients with:
• incontinence is likely to …:
• A woman who is 65 years old presents to your clinic with a breast lump. She has had only normal annual mammograms and her last one was 6 months ago. What is true about this lump?
• What recommendation should … made to a 70 year-old female regarding mammograms?
• A nurse practitioner identifies filamentous structures and many uniform, oval shaped structures during a microscopic exam of vaginal discharge. These are probably:
• A 51 year-old female patient presents with a 2 cm palpable breast mass. How should this … evaluated to determine whether it is solid or cystic in nature? NR661 – APN Capstone Practicum Papers
• Athletic amenorrhea increases the risk of:
• A patient who is scheduled for pelvic exam with PAP smear should … advised to avoid douching, sexual intercourse, and tampon use before her exam. For how long should she … advised to avoid these activities for optimal evaluation?
• A 54 year-old female presents with a small to moderate amount of vaginal bleeding of recent onset. She has been postmenopausal for approximately 2 years. What diagnosis is least likely?
• The clinical syndrome resulting from replacement of normal vaginal flora with anaerobic bacteria is:
• A patient asks the NP’s advice about an herb to help with her hot flashes. The NP knows these:
• After a vaginal exam, a patient received a prescription for metronidazole. What was her likely diagnosis?
• The frequency for cervical screening depends on the patient and her age. What is the longest … time interval between cervical screens for patients who are 65 years-old or younger?
• A 16 year-old female is … with primary dysmenorrhea. She has taken over the counter ibuprofen in 800 mg increments every 8 hours during menses for the past 3 months with minimal relief of symptoms. What intervention will provide greatest relief of dysmenorrhea symptoms?
• A patient who is 35 years old has … a small, discrete mass in one breast. How should this … evaluated?
• A young female has breast buds bilaterally. This represents Tanner Stage:
• A female should … told to take her OCP at bedtime if she experiences:
• The frequency for cervical screening depends on the patient and her age. What is the longest … time interval between cervical screens for patients who are 21-65 years of age?
• 15 year-old female has never menstruated. She and her mother are concerned. What is most important for the NP to assess?
• A young female adult presents with vaginal discharge and itching. Besides trichomoniasis and yeast, what else should … included in the differential?
• A 20 year old female reports that her grandmother and mother have osteopenia. What should she … encouraged to do to reduce her risk of osteopenia?
• A female patient is 35 years old. She has never had an abnormal PAP smear and has had regular screening since age 18. If she has a normal PAP smear with HPV testing today, when should she have the next cervical cancer screening?
• A 28 year-old female presents with a slightly tender 1.5 cm lump in her right breast. She noticed it two days ago. She has no associated lymphadenopathy and there is no nipple discharge. How should she … managed?
• The primary risk factor for development of breast cancer in women of average risk is:
• Women who use diaphragms for contraception have an increased incidence of:
• 24 year-old female patient who is sexually active complains of vaginal itching. If she has bacterial vaginosis, she might complain of:
• A 70 year-old female has been in a mutually monogamous relationship for the past 33 years. She has never had an abnormal Pap smear, what recommendation should … made regarding Pap smears for her?
• In collection of a specimen for a PAP smear, how is the endocervical specimen collected?
• A female patient who takes oral contraceptives has just completed her morning exercise routine. She complains of pain in her right calf. Her blood pressure and heart rate are normal. She is not short of breath. Her calf is red and warm to touch. What is NOT part of the differential diagnosis?
• An adolescent female has had normal menses for almost 2 years. She has not had menses in 3 months. She is …. with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). What else is a common finding? NR661 – APN Capstone Practicum Papers