Assignment: The Nurse Leader as Knowledge Worker

The term “knowledge worker” was first coined by management consultant and author Peter Drucker in his book, The Landmarks of Tomorrow (1959). Drucker defined knowledge workers as high-level workers who apply theoretical and analytical knowledge, acquired through formal training, to develop products and services. Does this sound familiar?

Nurses are very much knowledge workers. What has changed since Drucker’s time are the ways that knowledge can be acquired. The volume of data that can now be generated and the tools used to access this data have evolved significantly in recent years and helped healthcare professionals (among many others) to assume the role of knowledge worker in new and powerful ways.

PLACE YOUR ORDER NOW

 

In this Assignment, you will consider the evolving role of the nurse leader and how this evolution has led nurse leaders to assume the role of knowledge worker. You will prepare a PowerPoint presentation with an infographic (graphic that visually represents information, data, or knowledge. Infographics are intended to present information quickly and clearly.) to educate others on the role of nurse as knowledge worker.

Reference: Drucker, P. (1959). The landmarks of tomorrow. New York, NY: HarperCollins Publishers.

To Prepare:

• Review the concepts of informatics as presented in the Resources.
• Reflect on the role of a nurse leader as a knowledge worker.
• Consider how knowledge may be informed by data that is collected/accessed.

The Assignment:

• Explain the concept of a knowledge worker.
• Define and explain nursing informatics and highlight the role of a nurse leader as a knowledge worker.
• Develop a simple infographic to help explain these concepts.

  NOTE: For guidance on infographics, including how to create one in PowerPoint, see “How to Make an Infographic in PowerPoint” presented in the Resources.

• Your PowerPoint should Include the hypothetical scenario you originally shared in the Discussion Forum. Include your examination of the data that you could use, how the data might be accessed/collected, and what knowledge might be derived from that data. Be sure to incorporate feedback received from your colleagues’ responses.

hypothetical scenario originally shared in the discussion forum is:

Nursing, as with all other professional fields, has seen an amazing speed in which technological changes in the last 25 years.  Information systems provide limitless possibilities for learning and exploring, connecting and bringing the world to within reach.  For nursing, the widening range of available technology enables the opportunities for research and reform unproven clinical practices to evidence-based practices.  Nursing informatics is synthesis of nursing science, information science, computer science, and cognitive science for the purpose of managing, disseminating, and enhancing healthcare data, information, knowledge, and wisdom to improve collaboration and decision making provide high quality patient care; and advance the profession of nursing.( McGonigle & Mastrian, 2017).

Nursing Informatics also needs to stay updated on policies and processes, so they know how to correctly build them in the systems. Technology in hospitals are ever growing, which means that nursing informatics is just scratching the surface and will continue to grow over the year.

Sweeny, 2017 define informatics as “the integration of healthcare sciences, computer science, information science and cognitive science to assist in the management of healthcare information” (p. 223). The future development of nursing capabilities in data science will essentially lead to an entirely new cadre of nursing informatics specialists whose work will focus on deriving new nursing knowledge from not only electronic health record data, but also the data from sensor and remote monitoring technologies, patient portals and mobile apps described above. The implications of omics data such as genomics, metabolomics, and proteomics, being included as part of the electronic health record in the near future, should be taken into account. Nurse informatics specialists will be pivotal in assisting to identify potential ethical and practice implications in the use of these data. The future development of nursing capabilities in data science will essentially lead to an entirely new cadre of nursing informatics specialists whose work will focus on deriving new nursing knowledge from not only electronic health record data, but also the data from sensor and remote monitoring technologies, patient portals and mobile apps described above. The implications of omics data such as genomics, metabolomics, and proteomics, being included as part of the electronic health record in the near future, should be taken into account.

According to Nagle et al,(2017) Nurse informatics specialists will be pivotal in assisting to identify potential ethical and practice implications in the use of these data. Using The future development of nursing capabilities in data science will essentially lead to an entirely new cadre of nursing informatics specialists whose work will focus on deriving new nursing knowledge from not only electronic health record data, but also the data from sensor and remote monitoring technologies, patient portals and mobile apps described above. The implications of omics data such as genomics, metabolomics, and proteomics, being included as part of the electronic health record in the near future, should be taken into account. Nurse informatics specialists will be pivotal in assisting to identify potential ethical and practice implications in the use of these data.

A clarified scenario is patient admission to the hospital, patients with a medical or surgical condition may not be identified as having a substance abuse problem. Nurses need to be able to recognize alcohol withdrawal syndrome and start appropriate interventions within the first 24 hours. Otherwise, such complications as seizures and substance withdrawal delirium may arise.  Most hospitals have implemented this practice by including it in initial nursing assessments by checking the vital signs every three hours. But because not all patients are identified on admission as having the potential for alcohol withdrawal, you must stay alert for signs and symptoms. These may arise 4 to 12 hours after the patient’s last drink and may emerge while the patient’s still intoxicated. Many patients with long-term alcohol dependence don’t allow their blood alcohol level (BAL) to drop below a comfortable level, so withdrawal may begin when BAL is still in the intoxication range.autonomic hyperactivity (such as sweating or a pulse faster than 100 beats/minute), increased hand tremor, insomnia, nausea or vomiting transient visual, tactile, or auditory hallucinations or illusions, psychomotor agitation, anxiety, grand mal seizures. Consider the rapid action on the patient, nurses relied on the immediate data and information that the patient as shown during the initial rapid assessment to deliver appropriate care to the patient. Message send to on call- doctors via telehealth. Using the technology like the pulse oximeter and blood pressure machine and breathalyzer with assist with the support of the delivery care.

PLACE YOUR ORDER NOW

References:

McGonigle, D., & Mastrian, K. G. (2017). Nursing informatics and the foundation of knowledge (4th ed.). Burlington, MA: Jones & Bartlett Learning.

National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism; National Institutes of Health. Helping Patients Who Drink Too Much: A Clinician’s Guide and Related Professional Support Resources. www.niaaa.nih.gov/Publications/EducationTrainingMaterials/Pages/guide.aspx. Accessed May 15, 2012.

Nagle, L. M., Sermeus, W., & Junger, A. (2017). Evolving Role of the Nursing Informatics Specialist. Studies In Health Technology And Informatics, 232, 212–221. Retrieved from https://ezp.waldenulibrary.org/login?url=https://search.ebscohost.com/login.aspx?direct=true&db=mnh&AN=28106600&site=eds-live&scope=site

Sweeney, J. (2017). Healthcare informatics.(1)Online Journal of Nursing Informatics, 21

Resources:

McGonigle, D., & Mastrian, K. G. (2017). Nursing informatics and the foundation of knowledge (4th ed.). Burlington, MA: Jones & Bartlett Learning.

• Chapter 1, “Nursing Science and the Foundation of Knowledge” (pp. 7–19)
• Chapter 2, “Introduction to Information, Information Science, and Information Systems” (pp. 21–33)
• Chapter 3, “Computer Science and the Foundation of Knowledge Model” (pp. 35–62)

Sweeney, J. (2017). Healthcare informatics. Online Journal of Nursing Informatics, 21(1).

Note: You will access this article from the Walden Library databases.

Rubric:

 

Develop a 5- to 6-slide PowerPoint presentation that addresses the following:

·   Explain the concept of a knowledge worker.
·   Define and explain nursing informatics and highlight the role of a nurse leader as a knowledge worker.–

Levels of Achievement:Excellent 32 (32%) – 35 (35%) The presentation clearly and accurately explains the concept of a knowledge worker.

The presentation clearly and accurately defines and explains nursing informatics with a detailed explanation of the role of the nurse leader as a knowledge worker.

Includes: 3 or more peer-reviewed sources and 2 or more course resources.Good 28 (28%) – 31 (31%) The presentation explains the concept of a knowledge worker.

The presentation defines and explains nursing informatics with an explanation of the role of the nurse leader as a knowledge worker.

Includes: 2 peer-reviewed sources and 2 course resources.Fair 25 (25%) – 27 (27%) The presentation inaccurately or vaguely explains the concept of a knowledge worker.

The presentation inaccurately or vaguely defines and explains nursing informatics with an inaccurate or vague explanation of the role of the nurse leader as a knowledge worker.

Includes: 1 peer-reviewed sources and 1 course resources.Poor 0 (0%) – 24 (24%) The presentation inaccurately and vaguely explains the concept of a knowledge worker or is missing.

The presentation inaccurately and vaguely defines and explains nursing informatics with an inaccurate and vague explanation of the role of the nurse leader as a knowledge worker or is missing.

Includes:  1 or fewer resources.Feedback:

·   Develop a simple infographic to help explain these concepts.–

Levels of Achievement:Excellent 14 (14%) – 15 (15%) The presentation provides an accurate and detailed infographic that helps explain the concepts related to the presentation.Good 12 (12%) – 13 (13%) The presentation provides an infographic that helps explain the concepts related to the presentation.Fair 11 (11%) – 11 (11%) The presentation provides an infographic related to the concepts of the presentation that is inaccurate or vague.Poor 0 (0%) – 10 (10%) The infographic provided in the presentation related to the concepts of the presentation is inaccurate and vague, or is missing.Feedback:

·   Present the hypothetical scenario you originally shared in the Discussion Forum. Include your examination of the data you could use, how the data might be accessed/collected, and what knowledge might be derived from the data. Be sure to incorporate feedback received from your colleagues’ replies.–

Levels of Achievement:Excellent 32 (32%) – 35 (35%) The presentation clearly and thoroughly includes the hypothetical scenario originally shared in the Discussion Forum, including a detailed and accurate examination of the data used, how the data might be accessed/collected, and the knowledge that could be derived from the data.Good 28 (28%) – 31 (31%) The presentation includes the hypothetical scenario originally shared in the Discussion Forum, including an accurate examination of the data used, how the data might be accessed/collected, and the knowledge that could be derived from the data.Fair 25 (25%) – 27 (27%) The presentation includes the hypothetical scenario originally shared in the Discussion Forum, including an examination of the data used, how the data might be accessed/collected, and the knowledge that could be derived from the data that is vague or inaccurate.Poor 0 (0%) – 24 (24%) The presentation includes the hypothetical scenario originally shared in the Discussion Forum, including an examination of the data used, how the data might be accessed/collected, and the knowledge that could be derived from the data that is vague and inaccurate, or is missing.Feedback:

Written Expression and Formatting – Paragraph Development and Organization:

Paragraphs make clear points that support well developed ideas, flow logically, and demonstrate continuity of ideas. Sentences are carefully focused–neither long and rambling nor short and lacking substance.–

Levels of Achievement:Excellent 5 (5%) – 5 (5%) Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity.Good 4 (4%) – 4 (4%) Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity 80% of the time.Fair 3.5 (3.5%) – 3.5 (3.5%) Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity 60%- 79% of the time.Poor 0 (0%) – 3 (3%) Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity < 60% of the time.Feedback:

Written Expression and Formatting – English writing standards:

Correct grammar, mechanics, and proper punctuation–

Levels of Achievement:Excellent 5 (5%) – 5 (5%) Uses correct grammar, spelling, and punctuation with no errors.Good 4 (4%) – 4 (4%) Contains a few (1-2) grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors.Fair 3.5 (3.5%) – 3.5 (3.5%) Contains several (3-4) grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors.Poor 0 (0%) – 3 (3%) Contains many (≥ 5) grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors that interfere with the reader’s understanding.Feedback:

Written Expression and Formatting – The paper follows correct APA format for title page, headings, font, spacing, margins, indentations, page numbers, running head, parenthetical/in-text citations, and reference list.–

Levels of Achievement:Excellent 5 (5%) – 5 (5%) Uses correct APA format with no errors.Good 4 (4%) – 4 (4%) Contains a few (1-2) APA format errors.Fair 3.5 (3.5%) – 3.5 (3.5%) Contains several (3-4) APA format errors.Poor 0 (0%) – 3 (3%) Contains many (≥ 5) APA format errors.Feedback: Total Points: 100

NURS 6531 FINAL EXAM (2 VERSIONS) & NURS 6531 MIDTERM EXAM (2 VERSIONS) (100 CORRECT Q & A IN EACH VERSION, TOTAL: 400 Q & A)

NURS 6531 Final Exam / NURS6531 Final Exam (Latest): Walden University

Walden NURS 6531 Final Exam / Walden NURS6531 Final Exam (Latest)

PLACE YOUR ORDER NOW

· Question 1

 

When   completing this quiz, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct   including the expectations for academic integrity?

· Question 2

 

Central obesity, “moon” face, and dorsocervical fat pad   are associated with:

 

A.

Metabolic     syndrome

 

B.

Unilateral     pheochromocytoma

 

C.

Cushing’s     syndrome

 

D.

None     of the above

 

· Question 3

 

An elderly man is started on lisinopril and   hydrochlorhiazide for hypertension. Three days later, he returns to the   office complaining of left great toe pain. On exam, the nurse practitioner   notes an edematous, erythematous tender left great toe. The likely   precipitant of this patient’s pain is:

 

A.

Trauma

 

B.

Tight     shoes

 

C.

Arthritis     flare

 

D.

Hydrochlorothiazide

 

· Question 4

 

The most effective treatment of non-infectious bursitis   includes:

 

· Question 5

 

What conditions must be met for you to bill “incident to”   the physician, receiving 100% reimbursement from Medicare?

 

Answers:

You must initiate the plan     of care for the patient

 

The physician must be     on-site and engaged in patient care

 

You must be employed as an     independent contractor

 

You must be the main health     care provider who sees the patient

 

· Question 6

 

Which of the following is not a risk factor associated   with the development of syndrome X and type 2 diabetes mellitus?

 

· Question 7

 

Which of the following is not a common early sign of   benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

A.   Nocturia
B. Urgency incontinence
C. Strong urinary stream flow
D. Straining to void

 

· Question 8

 

Steve, age 69, has gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).   When teaching him how to reduce his lower esophageal sphincter pressure,   which substances do you recommend that he avoid?

§ Food that is very hot or very cold

§ Fatty or fried foods

§ Peppermint or spearmint, including flavoring

§ Coffee, tea, and soft drinks that contain caffeine

§ Spicy, highly seasoned foods

§ Fried foodDT caffeine, chocolate and anticholinergics

 

· Question 9

 

Which drug category contains the drugs that are the first   line Gold standard therapy for COPD?

 

· Question 10

 

The most commonly recommended pharmacological treatment   regimen for low back pain (LBP) is:

 

· Question 11

 

Which of the following is not appropriate suppression   therapy for chronic bacterial prostatitis?

 

· Question 12

 

A patient presents with dehydration, hypotension, and   fever. Laboratory testing reveals hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and   hypoglycemia. These imbalances are corrected, but the patient returns 6 weeks   later with the same symptoms of hyperpigmentation, weakness, anorexia,   fatigue, and weight loss. What action(s) should the nurse practitioner take?

.A Obtain a   thorough history and physical, and check serum cortisol and ACTH levels.
B. Perform a diet history and check CBC and FBS.
C. Provide nutritional guidance and have the patient return in one month.
D. Consult home health for intravenous administration

 

· Question 13

The nurse practitioner diagnoses epididymitis in a 24 year old sexually active male patient. The drug of choice for treatment of this patient is:

· Question 14

How do you respond when Jessica, age 42, asks you what constitutes a good minimum cardiovascular workout?

· Question 15

 

The intervention known to be most effective in the   treatment of severe depression, with or without psychosis, is:

· Question 16

 

You are assessing a patient after a sports injury to his   right knee. You elicit a positive anterior/posterior drawer sign. This test   indicates an injury to the: he
A. lateral meniscus
B. cruciate ligament
C. medial meniscus
D. collateral ligament.

 

· Question 17

 

 

A 32 year old female patient presents with fever, chills,   right flank pain, right costovertebral angle tenderness, and hematuria. Her   urinalysis is positive for leukocytes and red blood cells. The nurse   practitioner diagnoses pyelonephritis. The most appropriate management is:

 

· Question 18

 

A 21-year-old female presents to the office   complaining of urinary frequency and urinary burning. The nurse practitioner   suspects a urinary tract infection when the urinalysis reveals

· Question 19

 

A middle-aged man presents to urgent care complaining of   pain of the medial condyle of the lower humerus. The man works as a carpenter   and describes a gradual onset of pain. On exam, the medial epicondyle is   tender and pain is increased with flexion and pronation. Range of motion is   full The most likely cause of this patient’s pain is:

 

· Question 20

 

The initial clinical sign of Dupuytren’s contracture is:

·

· Question 21

 

The best test to determine microalbuminuria to assist in   the diagnosis of diabetic neuropathy

 

· Question 22

 

What is the first symptom seen in the majority of patients   with Parkinson’s disease?

 

· Question 23

 

The most commonly recommended method for prostate cancer   screening in a 55 year old male is:

 

· Question 24

 

Martin, age 24, presents with an erythematous ear canal,   pain, and a recent history of swimming. What do you suspect?

 

· Question 25

 

Which of   the following symptoms suggests a more serious cause of back pain?

 

· Question 26

 

Josh, age 22, is a stock boy and has an acute episode of   low back pain. You order and NSAID and tell him which of the following?

· Question 27

 

A 72 year old female patient reports a 6 month   history of gradually progressive swollen and painful distal interphalangeal   (DIP) joints of one hand. She has no systemic symptoms but the erythrocyte   sedimentation rate (ESR), antinuclear antibody (ANA), and rheumatoid factor   (RF) are all minimally elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?

· Question 28

 

A patient taking levothyroxine is being   over-replaced. What condition is he at risk for?

 

· Question 29

 

Which of the following is the most common cause of low   back pain?

 

A.

Lumbar     disc disease

 

B.

Spinal     stenosis

 

C.

Traumatic     fracture

 

D.

Osteoporosis

 

· Question 30

 

Which is the most common cause of end-stage renal disease   in the United States?

 

· Question 31

 

A 77-year-old female presents to the office complaining a   sudden swelling on her right elbow. She denies fever, chills, trauma, or   pain. The physical exam reveals a non-tender area of swelling over the   extensor surface over the right elbow with evidence of trauma or irritation.   The nurse practitioner suspects:

 

A.

Arthritis

 

B.

Ulnar     neuritis

 

C.

Septic     arthritis

 

D.

Olecranon     bursitis

 

· Question 32

 

A 60 year old female patient complains of sudden onset   unilateral, stabbing, surface pain in the lower part of her face lasting a   few minutes, subsiding, and then returning. The pain is triggered by touch or   temperature extremes. Physical examination is normal. Which of the following   is the most likely diagnosis?

 

· Question 33

 

Beth, age 49, comes in with low back pain. An x-ray of the   lumbosacral spine is within normal limits. Which of the following diagnoses   do you explore further?

 

· Question 34

 

A patient exhibits extrapyramidal side effects of   antipsychotic medications. Which of the following symptoms would lead you to   look for another diagnosis?

 

· Question 35

 

Phalen’s test, 90°wrist flexion for 60 seconds, reproduces   symptoms of:

 

· Question 36

 

Jennifer says that she has heard that caffeine can cause   osteoporosis and asks you why. How do you respond?

· Question 37

 

The most common cause of elevated liver function tests is:

 

· Question 38

 

Reed-Sternberg B lymphocytes are associated with which of   the following disorders:

 

A.

Aplastic anemia

 

B.

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

 

C.

Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma

 

D.

Myelodysplastic syndromes

 

· Question 39

 

Which of the following is a potential acquired cause of   thrombophilia?

 

A.

Homocysteinuria

 

B.

Protein C deficiency

 

C.

Factor V Leiden

 

D.

Antiphospholipid antibodies

 

· Question 41

 

A 75-year-old female is diagnosed with primary   hyperparathyroidism and asks the nurse practitioner what the treatment for   this disorder is. The nurse practitioner explains:

 

Primary     hyperparathyroidism is treated with Vitamin D restriction

 

Primary     hyperparathyroidism is treated with parathyroidectomy

 

Primary     hyperparathyroidism is treated with daily magnesium

 

Primary     hyperparathyroidism is treated with parenteral parathyroid hormone (PTH)

 

· Question 42

 

Diagnostic confirmation of acute leukemia is based on:

·

· Question 43

 

A 25 year old overweight patient presents with a   complaint of dull achiness in his groin and history of a palpable lump in his   scrotum that “comes and goes”. On physical examination, the nurse   practitioner does not detect a scrotal mass. There is no tenderness, edema,   or erythema of the scrotum, the scrotum does not transilluminate. What is the   most likely diagnosis?

A. Testicular   torsion
B. Epididymitis
C. Inguinal hernia
D. Varicocele

 

· Question 44

 

Dave, age 38, states that he thinks he has an ear   infection because he just flew back from a business trip and feels unusual   pressure in his ear. You diagnose barotrauma. What is your next action?

A. Prescribe nasal steroids and oral decongestants
B. Prescribe antibiotic eardrops
C. Prescribe systemic eardrops
D. Refer David to an ear, nose, and throat specialist

 

· Question 45

 

Which of the following antibiotics should not be   prescribed for a pregnant woman in the 3rd trimester?

· Question 46

 

The physiological explanation of syncope is:

 

· Question 47

 

 

A 20 year old male patient complains of “scrotal   swelling.” He states his scrotum feels heavy, but denies pain. On   examination, the nurse practitioner notes transillumination of the scrotum.   What is the most likely diagnosis?

 

· Question 48

 

A 32 year old male patient complains of urinary   frequency and burning on urination for 3 days. Urinalysis reveals   bacteriuria. He denies any past history of urinary tract infection. The   initial treatment should be: nclude nitrofurantoin monohydrate/macrocrystals,   trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX), or fosfomycin.

 

· Question 49

 

Diagnostic radiological studies are indicated for low back   pain:

 

· Question 50

 

Who is at a higher risk for developing nephrolithiasis?

·

· Question 51

 

An 81-year-old female is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes.   When considering drug therapy for this patient, the nurse practitioner is   most concerned with which of the following side effects?

 

A.

Weight     gain

 

B.

Fracture     risk

 

C.

Hypoglycemia

 

D.

Weight     loss

 

· Question 52

 

A 28-year-old female presents to the office requesting   testing for diagnosis of hereditary thrombophilia. Her father recently had a   deep vein thrombosis and she is concerned about her risk factors. The nurse   practitioner explains that:

· Question 53

 

The diagnosis of human papilloma virus (HPV) infection in   males is usually made by:

 

· Question 54

 

Which history is commonly found in a patient with   glomerulonephritis?

 

· Question 55

 

A   patient complains of generalized joint pain and stiffness associated with   activity and relieved with rest. This patient history is consistent with   which of the following disorders?

 

· Question 56

 

The most common presentation of thyroid cancer is:

 

· Question 57

 

The obligatory criteria for diagnosis of muscular   dystrophy (MD) are:

 

· Question 58

 

The diagnosis which must be considered in a patient who   presents with a severe headache of sudden onset, with neck stiffness and   fever, is:

 

· Question 59

 

A 60 year old male patient with multiple health   problems presents with a complaint of erectile dysfunction (ED). Of the   following, which medication is most likely to be causing the problem?

 

· Question 60

 

A 72 year old patient exhibits sudden onset of fluctuating   restlessness, agitation, confusion, and impaired attention. This is   accompanied by visual hallucinations and sleep disturbance. What is the most   likely cause of this behavior?

A. Dementia
C. Parkinson’s disease
D. Depression

 

· Question 61

 

Which of the following set of symptoms should raise   suspicion of a brain tumor?

 

· Question 62

 

The cornerstone of treatment for   stress fracture of the femur or metatarsal stress fracture is:

 

· Question 63

 

Sally, a computer programmer, has just been given a new diagnosis   of carpal tunnel syndrome. Your next step is to:

 

· Question 64

 

Marsha presents with symptoms resembling both fibromyalgia   and chronic fatigue syndrome, which have many similarities. Which of the   following is more characteristic of fibromyalgia?

A.   Musculosckeletal pain
B. Difficulty sleeping
C. Depression
D. Fatigue

 

· Question 65

 

The cardinal sign of infectious arthritis is:

 

 

· Question 66

 

Diagnostic evaluation for urinary calculi includes:

 

· Question 67

 

Martin, a 58 year old male with diabetes, is at your   office for his diabetes follow up. On examining his feet with monofilament,   you discover that he has developed decreased sensation in both feet. There are   no open areas or signs of infection on his feet. What health teaching should   Martin receive today regarding the care if his feet?

See a   podiatrist yearly; wash your feet daily with
warm, soapy water and towel dry between the
toes; inspect your feet daily for any lesions; and
apply lotion to any dry areas.

· Question 68

 

Potential causes of septic   arthritis include which of the following?

· Question 69

 

Which of the following is the best response to a woman who   has just admitted she is a victim of spousal abuse?

· Question 70

 

A 15 year-old female patient is 5 feet tall and weighs 85   pounds. You suspect anorexia and know that the best initial approach is to:

Having   the client in view of staff for 90 minutes after each meal

 

· Question 71

 

A 63-year-old man presents to the office with hematuria,   hesitancy, and dribbling. Digital rectal exam (DRE) reveals a moderately   enlarged prostate that is smooth. The PSA is 1.2. What is the most   appropriate management strategy for you to follow at this time?

A. Prescribe   an alpha adrenergic blocker.
B. Recommend saw palmetto.
C. Prescribe an antibiotic
D. Refer the client to urology.

 

· Question 72

 

A patient has been diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder   (GAD). Which of the following medications may be used to treat generalized   anxiety disorder?

· Question 73

 

A positive drawer sign supports a diagnosis of:

 

· Question 74

 

Sam, age 67, is a diabetic with worsening renal function.   He has frequent hypoglycemic episodes, which he believes means that his   diabetes is getting “better.” How do you respond?

·

· Question 75

 

A 14 year old female cheerleader reports gradual and   progressive dull anterior knee pain, exacerbated by kneeling. The nurse   practitioner notes swelling and point tenderness at the tibial tuberosity.   X-ray is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

 

· Question 76

 

A 35 year old male presents with a complaint of low   pelvic pain, dysuria, hesitancy, urgency, and reduced force of stream. The   nurse practitioner suspects acute bacterial prostatitis. Which of the   following specimens would be least helpful for diagnosis?

· Question 77

 

Jack, age 55, comes to the office with a blood pressure of   144/98 mm Hg. He states that he did not know if it was ever elevated before.   When you retake his blood pressure at the end of the exam, it remains at   144/98. What should your next action be?

 

· Question 78

 

A patient has just been diagnosed with Bell’s palsy. He is   understandably upset and has questions about the prognosis. You response   should be:

·

· Question 79

 

Martin is complaining of erectile dysfunction. He also has   a condition that has reduced arterial blood flow to his penis. The most   common cause of this condition is:

 

· Question 80

 

Successful management of a patient with attention deficit hyperactivity   disorder (ADHD) may be achieved with:

 

· Question 81

 

What diabetic complications result from hyperglycemia?

1.

1.

1.  Retinopathy

2.  Hypertension   resistant to treatment

3. Peripheral   neuropathy

4.  Accelerated   atherogenesis

 

· Question 82

 

· Question 83

 

The most common symptoms of transient ischemic attack   (TIA) include:

 

· Question 84

 

What is the first step in the treatment of uric acid   kidney stones?

· Question 85

 

Establishment of a definitive diagnosis of osteomyelitis   requires:

 

· Question 86

 

Which of the following is the most common causative   organism of nongonococcal urethritis?

 

A.

Chlamydia     trachomatis

 

B.

Ureaplasma     urealyticum

 

C.

Mycoplasma     hominis

 

D.

Trichonomas     vaginalis

 

· Question 87

 

Urine cultures should be obtained for which of the   following patients?

·

· Question 88

 

A 30 year old female patient presents to the clinic with   heat intolerance, tremors, nervousness, and weight loss inconsistent with   increased appetite. Which test would be most likely to confirm the suspected   diagnosis?

 

· Question 89

 

A patient has been diagnosed with   hypothyroidism and thyroid hormone replacement therapy is prescribed. How   long should the nurse practitioner wait before checking the patient’s TSH?

· Question 90

 

Potential causes of hypocalcemia include which of the   following?

 

· Question 91

 

Which of the following patients most warrants screening   for hypothyroidism?

· Question 92

 

Which of the following is a contraindication for metformin   therapy?

 

· Question 93

 

The organism most often associated with prostatitis is:

 

A.

Klebsiella

 

B.

Neiserria     gonorrhoaes

 

C.

Chlamydia     trachomatis

 

D.

Escherichia     coli

 

· Question 94

 

The most effective intervention(s)   to prevent stroke is (are):

 

· Question 95

 

What is the most commonly abused substance?

 

· Question 96

 

The hallmark of neurofibromatosis (von Recklinghausen’s   disease) present in almost 100% of patients is:

· Question 97

 

Diagnostic evaluation of   hypothyroidism reveals:

· Question 98

 

An obese hyperlipidemic patient, newly diagnosed with type   2 diabetes mellitus, has fasting glucose values 180 to 250 mg/Dl. What is the   most appropriate initial treatment to consider?

A. A   low-calorie diet and exercise
B. Sliding-scale NPH insulin every 12 hours
C. A sulfonylurea and/or metformin (Glucophage® -XR)
D. Sliding-scale regular insulin every 6 hours

 

· Question 99

 

The correct treatment for ankle sprain during the first 48   hours after injury includes:

· Question 100

 

Prolonged PT suggests:

 

A.

Platelet abnormality

 

B.

Abnormality in intrinsic     coagulation pathway

 

C.

Abnormality in extrinsic     coagulation pathway

 

D.

None of the above

 

Question 101

·

A patient presenting for an annual physical exam has a BMI of 25 kg/m2 This patient would be classified as:

· Question 102

 

The most reliable indicator(s) of neurological deficit   when assessing a patient with acute low back pain is(are):

· Question 103

 

Risk factors for Addison’s disease   include which of the following?

 

· Question 104

 

Major depression occurs most often   in which of the following conditions?

 

· Question 105

 

Which of the following medications increase the risk for   metabolic syndrome?

 

· Question 106

 

A 27 year old female patient with epilepsy is well   controlled with phenytoin (Dilantin). She requests information about   contraception. The nurse practitioner should instruct her that while taking   phenytoin:

 

· Question 107

 

Risk factors for prostate cancer include all of the   following except:

 

· Question 108

 

Maria, age 17, was raped when she was 13 year old. She is   now experiencing sleeping problems, flashbacks, and depression. What is your   initial diagnosis?Post-traumatic stress disorder

 

NURS 6531 Midterm Exam / NURS6531 Midterm Exam (Latest): Walden University

Walden NURS 6531 Midterm Exam / Walden NURS6531 Midterm Exam (Latest)

· Question 1

 

When   completing this quiz, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct   including the expectations for academic integrity?

 

Yes

 

No

· Question 2

 

The most common cancer found on   the auricle is:

 

Actinic keratosis

 

Basal cell carcinoma

 

Squamous cell carcinoma

 

Acral-lentiginous melanoma

· Question 3

 

Which of the following   medication classes should be avoided in patients with acute or chronic   bronchitis because it will contribute to ventilation-perfusion mismatch in   the patient?

 

Xanthines

 

Antihistimines

 

Steroids

 

Anticholinergics

· Question 4

 

A 47 year old male patient   presents to the clinic with a single episode of a moderate amount of bright   red rectal bleeding. On examination, external hemorrhoids are noted. How   should the nurse practitioner proceed?

 

Instruct the patient on     measures to prevent hemorrhoids such as bowel habits and diet.

 

Order a topical hemorrhoid cream along with a stool softener.

 

Refer the patient for a barium enema and sigmoidoscopy.
 

Refer the patient for a surgical hemorrhoidectomy.

· Question 5

 

Which of the following patient   characteristics are associated with chronic bronchitis?

 

Overweight, cyanosis, and normal or slightly increased respiratory     rate
 

Underweight, pink skin, and increased respiratory rate
 

Overweight, pink skin, and normal or slightly increased respiratory     rate
 

Normal weight, cyanosis, and greatly increased respiratory rate

· Question 6

 

A 65-year-old female with   a past medical history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and polymyalgia   rheumatica presents to urgent care with new onset left lower quadrant pain.   Her current medications include omeprazole 20 milligrams po daily, lisinopril   20 milligrams po daily, simvastatin 20 milligrams po daily, and prednisone 12   milligrams po daily. The nurse practitioner suspects acute diverticulitis and   possibly an abscess. The most appropriate diagnostic test for this patient at   this time is:

 

CBCdiff
 

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
 

Abdominal ultrasound
 

CT scan

· Question 7

 

A patient reports “something   flew in my eye” about an hour ago while he was splitting logs. If there were   a foreign body in his eye, the nurse practitioner would expect to find all   except:

 

Purulent drainage
 

Tearing
 

Photophobia
 

A positive fluorescein stain

· Question 8

 

A 21 year old college student   presents to the student health center with copious, markedly purulent   discharge from her left eye. The nurse practitioner student should suspect:

 

Viral conjunctivitis
 

Common pink eye
 

Gonococcal conjunctivitis
 

Allergic conjunctivitis

· Question 9

 

A 35 year old man   presents with radicular pain followed by the appearance of grouped vesicles   consisting of about 15 lesions across 3 different thoracic dermatomes. He   complains of pain, burning, and itching. The nurse practitioner should   suspect:

 

A common case of shingles and prescribe an analgesic and an antiviral     agent
 

A complicated case of shingles and prescribe acyclovir, an analgesic,     and a topical cortisone cream
 

Herpes zoster and consider that this patient may be immunocompromised
 

A recurrence of chickenpox and treat the patient’s symptoms

· Question 10

 

Which type of lung cancer has   the poorest prognosis?

 

Adenocarcinoma
 

Epidermoid carcinoma
 

Small cell carcinoma
 

Large cell carcinoma

· Question 11

 

An 83-year-old female   presents to the office complaining of diarrhea for several days. She explains   she has even had fecal incontinence one time. She describes loose stools 3–4   times a day for several weeks and denies fever, chills, pain, recent antibiotic   use. The history suggests that the patient has:

 

Acute diarrhea
 

Chronic diarrhea
 

Irritable bowel
 

Functional bowel disease

· Question 12

 

Margaret, age 32, comes into   the office with painful joints and a distinctive rash in a butterfly   distribution on her face. The rash has red papules and plaques with a fine   scale. What do you suspect?

 

An allergic reaction
 

Relapsing polychondritis
 

Lymphocytoma cutis
 

Systemic lupus erythematosus

· Question 13

 

Antibiotic administration has   been demonstrated to be of little benefit to the treatment of which of the   following disease processes?

 

Chronic sinusitis

 

Acute bronchitis
 

Bacterial pneumonia
 

Acute exacerbation of chronic bronchitis

· Question 14

 

Lisa, age 49, has daily   symptoms of asthma. She uses her inhaled short-acting beta-2 agonist daily.   Her exacerbations affect her activities and they occur at least twice weekly   and may last for days. She is affected more than once weekly during the night   with an exacerbation. Which category of asthma severity is Lisa in?

 

Mild intermittent
 

Mild persistent
 

Moderate persistent

· Question 15

 

Which of the following is the   most appropriate therapeutic regimen for an adult patient with no known   allergies diagnosed with group A B-hemolytic strep?

 

Penicillin V 500 milligrams PO every 8 hours for 10 days
 

Ampicillin 250 milligrams PO twice a day for 10 days
 

Clarithromycin 500 milligrams po daily for 7 days

 

None of the above

· Question 16

 

A cashier complains of dull   ache and pressure sensation in her lower legs. It is relieved by leg   elevation. She occasionally has edema in her lower legs at the end of the   day. What is the most likely cause of these problems?

 

Congestive heart failure
 

Varicose veins

 

Deep vein thrombosis

 

Arterial insufficiency

· Question 17

 

Which statement below is   correct about pertussis?

 

It is also called whooping cough
 

It begins with symptoms like strep throat
 

It lasts about 3 weeks
 

It occurs most commonly in toddlers and young children

· Question 18

 

Which of the following is the   most important diagnosis to rule out in the adult patient with acute bronchitis?

 

Pneumonia
 

Asthma
 

Sinusitis
 

Pertussis

· Question 19

 

A 70 year old patient presents   with left lower quadrant (LLQ) abdominal pain, a markedly tender palpable   abdominal wall, fever, and leukocytosis. Of the following terms, which   correctly describes the suspected condition?

 

Diverticulosis
 

Diverticula

 

Diverticulitis
 

Diverticulum

· Question 20

 

Sylvia, age 83, presents with a   3 day history of pain and burning in the left forehead. This morning she   noticed a rash with erythematous papules in that site. What do you suspect?

 

Varicella

 

Herpes zoster

 

Syphilis

 

Rubella

· Question 21

 

A 33-year-old female is   admitted with acute pancreatitis. The nurse practitioner knows that the most   common cause of pancreatitis is:

 

Alcohol
 

Gallstones
 

Medications
 

Pregnancy

· Question 22

 

When a patient presents with symptoms   of acute gallbladder disease, what is the appropriate nurse practitioner   action?

 

Order abdominal x-rays
 

Order an abdominal ultrasound
 

Refer the patient to a surgeon for evaluation
 

Prescribe pain medication

· Question 23

 

A false-positive result with   the fecal occult blood test can result from:

 

ingestion of large amounts of vitamin C
 

a high dietary intake of rare cooked beef
 

a colonic neoplasm that is not bleeding
 

stool that has been stored before testing

· Question 24

 

A 76-year-old male   complains of weight loss, nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramping and pain.   Physical findings include an abdominal mass and stool positive for occult   blood. The nurse practitioner pain suspects a tumor in the small intestine.   The best diagnostic test for this patient is:

 

Colonoscopy
 

Small bowel follow-through
 

Barium enema
 

CT abdomen

· Question 25

 

A patient presents to urgent   care complaining of dyspnea, fatigue, and lower extremity edema. The   echocardiogram reveals and ejection fraction of 38%. The nurse practitioner   knows that these findings are consistent with:

 

Mitral regurgitation
 

Systolic heart failure
 

Cardiac myxoma
 

Diastolic heart failure

· Question 26

 

Maxine, Age 76, has just been   given a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which of the following is an indication that   she should be hospitalized?

 

Multilobar involvement on chest x-ray with the inability to take oral     medications
 

Alert and oriented, slightly high but stable vital signs, and no one     to take care of her at home
 

Sputum and gram positive organisms
 

A complete blood count showing leukocytosis

· Question 27

 

A 55 year old man is diagnosed   with basal cell carcinoma. The nurse practitioner correctly tells him:

 

“It is the most common cause of death in patients with skin cancer.”
 

“It can be cured with surgical excision or radiation therapy.”
 

“It is a slow growing skin cancer that rarely undergoes malignant     changes.”
 

“It can be cured using 5-flurouracil cream twice daily for 2 to 4     weeks.”

· Question 28

 

Expected spirometry readings   when the patient has chronic emphysema include:

 

Decreased residual volume (RV)
 

Increased vital capacity (VC)
 

Increased forced expiratory volume (FEV-1)
 

Increased total lung capacity (TLC)

· Question 29

 

An 80-year-old male   admits to difficulty swallowing during the review of systems. The nurse   practitioner recognizes the differential diagnosis for this patient’s   dysphagia is:

 

Esophageal cancer
 

Chest pain
 

GERD
 

A and C
 

All of the above

· Question 30

 

A 40 year old female with   history of frequent sun exposure presents with a multicolored lesion on her   back. It has irregular borders and is about 11mm in diameter. What should the   nurse practitioner suspect?

 

Squamous cell carcinoma
 

Malignant melanoma
 

A common nevus
 

Basal cell carcinoma

· Question 31

 

Which of the following is not a   goal of treatment for the patient with cystic fibrosis?

 

Prevent intestinal obstruction
 

Provide adequate nutrition
 

Promote clearance of secretions
 

Replace water-soluble vitamins

· Question 32

 

The nurse practitioner is   performing a physical exam on a middle-aged African-American man. Which of   the following areas is a common site for melanomas in African-Americans and   other dark-skinned individuals?

 

Scalp
 

Nails
 

Feet
 

B and C
 

All of the above

· Question 33

 

An adult presents with tinea   corporis. Which item below is a risk factor for its development?

 

Topical steroid use
 

Topical antibiotic use
 

A recent laceration
 

Cold climates

· Question 34

 

A patient has experienced   nausea and vomiting, headache, malaise, low grade fever, abdominal cramps,   and watery diarrhea for 72 hours. His white count is elevated with a shift to   the left. He is requesting medication for diarrhea. What is the most   appropriate response?

 

Prescribe loperamide (Immodium) or atropine-diphenoxylate (Lomotil)     and a clear liquid diet for 24 hours.
 

Prescribe a broad-spectrum antibiotic such as ciprofloxacin (Cipro),     and symptom management.
 

Offer an anti-emetic medication such as ondansetron (Zofran) and     provide oral fluid and electrolyte replacement instruction.
 

Order stool cultures.

· Question 35

 

Janine, age 29, has numerous   transient lesions that come and go, and she is diagnosed with urticaria. What   do you order?

 

Aspirin

 

NSAIDs

 

Opioids

 

Antihistamines

· Question 36

 

Of the following signs   and symptoms of congestive heart failure (CHF), the earliest clinical   manifestation is:

 

Peripheral edema
 

Weight gain
 

Shortness of breath
 

Nocturnal dyspnea

· Question 37

 

A 16 year old male presents   with mild sore throat, fever, fatigue, posterior cervical adenopathy, and   palatine petechiae. Without a definitive diagnosis for this patient, what   drug would be least appropriate to prescribe?

 

Ibuprofen

 

Erythromycin

 

Amoxicillin

 

Acetaminophen

· Question 38

 

A 70 year old man who walks 2   miles every day complains of pain in his left calf when he is walking. The   problem has gotten gradually worse and now he is unable to complete his 2   mile walk. What question asked during the history, if answered affirmatively,   would suggest a diagnosis of arteriosclerosis obliterans?

 

“Are you wearing your usual shoes?”
 

“Do you also have chest pain when you have leg pain?”
 

“Is your leg pain relieved by rest?”
 

“Do you ever have the same pain in the other leg?”

· Question 39

 

Which of the following   statements about malignant melanomas is true?

 

They usually occur in older adult males

 

The patient has no family history of melanoma

 

They are common in blacks

 

The prognosis is directly related to the thickness of the lesion

· Question 40

 

Sheila, age 78, presents with a   chief complaint of waking up during the night coughing. You examine her and   find an S3 heart sound, pulmonary crackles that do not clear with coughing,   and peripheral edema. What do you suspect?

 

Asthma

 

Nocturnal allergies
 

Valvular disease
 

Heart failure

· Question 41

 

Which antibiotic would be the   most effective in treating community acquired pneumonia (CAP) in a young   adult without any comorbid conditions?

 

Erythromycin
 

Clarithromycin (Biaxin)
 

Doxycycline (Vibramycin)
 

Penicillin

· Question 42

 

Which of the following   dermatologic vehicles are the most effective in absorbing moisture and   decreasing friction?

 

Powders
 

Gels
 

Creams
 

Lotion

· Question 43

 

A 70 year old patient presents   with a slightly raised, scaly, erythematous patch on her forehead. She admits   to having been a “sun worshiper.” The nurse practitioner suspects actinic   keratosis. This lesion is a precursor to:

 

Squamous cell carcinoma
 

Basal cell carcinoma
 

Malignant melanoma
 

Acne vulgaris

· Question 44

 

An elderly patient is being   seen in the clinic for complaint of “weak spells” relieved by sitting or   lying down. How should the nurse practitioner proceed with the physical   examination?

 

Assist the patient to a standing position and take her blood     pressure.
 

Assess the patient’s cranial nerves.
 

Compare the patient’s blood pressure lying first, then sitting, and     then standing.
 

Compare the amplitude of the patient’s radial and pedal pulses.

· Question 45

 

What oral medication might be   used to treat chronic cholethiasis in a patient who is a poor candidate for   surgery?

 

Ursodiol
 

Ibuprofen
 

Prednisone
 

Surgery is the only answer

· Question 46

 

A 46-year-old female with a   past medical history of diabetes presents with a swollen, erythematous right   auricle and is diagnosed with malignant otitis externa. The nurse   practitioner knows that the most likely causative organism for this patient’s   problem is:

 

Staphylococcus aureus
 

Group A beta hemolytic streptococcus
 

Haemophilus influenza
 

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

· Question 47

 

Which of the following is not a   symptom of irritable bowel syndrome?

 

Painful diarrhea

 

Painful constipation

 

Cramping and abdominal pain

 

Weight loss

· Question 48

 

A patient comes in complaining   of 1 week of pain in the posterior neck with difficulty turning the head to   the right. What additional history is needed?

 

Any recent trauma

 

Difficulty swallowing

 

Stiffness in the right shoulder

 

Change in sleeping habits

· Question 49

 

Marvin, age 56, is a smoker   with diabetes. He has just been diagnosed as hypertensive. Which of the   following drugs has the potential to cause the development of bronchial   asthma and inhibit gluconeogenesis?

 

ACE Inhibitor
 

Beta Blocker
 

Calcium channel blocker
 

Diuretic

· Question 50

 

The differential diagnosis for   a patient complaining of a sore throat includes which of the following?

 

Gonococcal infection
 

Thrush
 

Leukoplakia
 

B only
 

A, B, and C

· Question 51

 

A patient presents to the   primary care provider complaining of a rash on his right forehead that   started yesterday and is burning and painful. The physical exam reveals an   erythematous, maculopapular rash that extends over the patient’s right eye to   his upper right forehead. Based on the history and examination, the most   likely cause of this patient’s symptoms is:

 

Rhus dermatitis
 

Ophthalmic zoster
 

Chemosis
 

Optic neuritis

· Question 52

 

Before initiating an HMG   CoA-reductase inhibitor for hyperlipidemia, the nurse practitioner orders   liver function studies. The patient’s aminotransferase (ALT) is elevated.   What laboratory test(s) should be ordered?

 

Serologic markers for hepatitis
 

Serum bilirubin
 

Serum cholesterol with HDL and LDL
 

A liver biopsy

· Question 53

 

A patient with elevated lipids   has been started on lovastatin. After 3 weeks of therapy, he calls to report   generalized muscle aches. The nurse practitioner should suspect:

 

A drug interaction

 

Hepatic dysfunction
 

Hypersensitivity to lovastatin

 

Rhabdomyolysis

· Question 54

 

Treatment of acute vertigo   includes:

 

Bedrest and an antihistamine
 

Fluids and a decongestant
 

A sedative and decongestant
 

Rest and a low sodium diet

· Question 55

 

Treatment of H.pylori includes   which of the following?

 

Proton pump inhibitor
 

Antibiotic therapy
 

Bismuth subsalicylate
 

A and B
 

A, B, and C

· Question 56

 

Carl, age 78, is brought to the   office by his son, who states that his father has been unable to see clearly   since last night. Carl reports that his vision is “like looking through a   veil.” He also sees floaters and flashing lights but is not having any pain.   What do you suspect?

 

Cataracts
 

Glaucoma
 

Retinal detachment
 

Iritis

· Question 57

 

In order to decrease deaths   from lung cancer:

 

All smokers should be screened annually
 

All patients should be screened annually
 

Only high risk patients should be screened routinely
 

Patients should be counseled to quit smoking

· Question 58

 

John, age 33, has a total   cholesterol level of 188 mgdL. How often should he be screened for   hypercholesterolemia?

 

Every 5 years
 

Every 2 years
 

Every year
 

Whenever blood work is done

· Question 59

 

Mort is hypertensive. Which of   the following factors influenced your choice of using an alpha blocker as the   antihypertensive medication?

 

Mort is black
 

Mort also has congestive heart failure
 

Mort has benign prostatic hyperplasia
 

Mort has frequent migraine headaches

· Question 60

 

John, age 59, presents with   recurrent, sharply circumscribed red papules and plaques with a powdery white   scale on the extensor aspect of his elbows and knees. What do you suspect?

 

Actinic keratosis

 

Eczema

 

Psoriasis

 

Seborrheic dermatitis

· Question 61

 

Harriet, a 79-year-old woman,   comes to your office every 3 months for follow up on her hypertension. Her   medications include one baby aspirin daily, Lisinopril 5mg daily, and Calcium   1500 mg daily. At today’s visit. Her blood pressure is 17089. According to   JNC VIII guidelines, what should you do next to control Harriet’s blood   pressure?

 

Increase her Lisinopril to 20mg daily
 

Add a thiazide diuretic to the Lisinopril 5mg daily
 

Discontinue the Lisinopril and start a combination of ACE Inhibitor     and calcium channel blocker
 

Discontinue the Lisinopril and start a diuretic

· Question 62

 

An active 65-year-old man under   your care has known acquired valvular aortic stenosis and mitral   regurgitation. He also has a history of infectious endocarditis. He has   recently been told he needs elective replacement of his aortic valve. When he   comes into the office you discover that he has 10 remaining teeth in poor   repair. Your recommendation would be to:

 

defer any further dental work until his valve replacement is completed

 

instruct him to have dental     extraction done cautiously, having no more than 2 teeth per visit removed.

 

suggest he consult with his     oral surgeon about having all the teeth removed at once and receiving     appropriate antibiotic prophylaxis

 

coordinate with his cardiac and oral surgeons to have the tooth     extractions and valve replacement done at the same time to reduce the risk     of anesthetic complications.

· Question 63

 

Appropriate therapy for peptic   ulcer disease (PUD) is:

 

Primarily by eradication of infection
 

Based on etiology
 

Aimed at diminishing prostaglandin synthesis
 

Dependent on cessation of NSAID use

· Question 64

 

Shirley, age 58, has been a   diabetic for 7 years. Her blood pressure is normal. Other than her diabetes   medications, what would you prescribe today during her routine office visit?

 

A calcium channel blocker
 

A beta blocker
 

An ACE Inhibitor
 

No hypertension medication

· Question 65

 

Medicare is a federal program   administered by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS). The CMS   has developed guidelines for Evaluation and Management coding, which all providers   are expected to follow when coding patient visits for reimbursement. Which of   the following is an important consideration regarding billing practices?

 

It is important to “undercode” so that one does not get charged with     Medicare fraud

 

The practice of “overcoding” is essential in this age of decreasing     reimbursements

 

Failing to bill for billable services will lead to unnecessarily low     revenues

 

Time spent with the patient is a very important determinant of billing

· Question 66

 

A 2 year old presents with a   white pupillary reflex. What is the most likely cause of this finding?

 

Viral conjunctivitis

 

Glaucoma

 

Corneal abrasion

 

Retinoblastoma

· Question 67

 

Harvey has had Meniere’s   disease for several years. He has some hearing loss but now has persistent   vertigo. What treatment might be instituted to relieve the vertigo?

 

Pharmacological therapy
 

A labyrinthectomy
 

A vestibular neurectomy
 

Wearing an earplug in the ear with the most hearing loss

· Question 68

 

Which of the following is not a   risk factor for coronary arterial insufficiency?

 

Hyperhomocysteinemia
 

Smoking
 

Genetic factors
 

Alcohol ingestion

· Question 69

 

An 18-year-old female presents   to the urgent care center complaining of severe pruritus in both eyes that   started 2 days ago. Associated symptoms include a headache and fatigue. On   examination, the nurse practitioner notes some clear discharge from both eyes   and some erythema of the eyelids and surrounding skin. Which of the following   is the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms?

 

Allergic conjunctivitis
 

Bacterial conjunctivitis
 

Gonococcal conjunctivitis
 

Viral conjunctivitis

· Question 70

 

A 20 year old is diagnosed with   mild persistent asthma. What drug combination would be most effective in   keeping him symptom-free?

 

A long-acting bronchodilator

 

An inhaled corticosteroid and cromolyn
 

Theophylline and a short acting bronchodilator
 

A bronchodilator PRN and an inhaled corticosteroid

· Question 71

 

Acute rheumatic fever is an   inflammatory disease which can follow infection with:

 

Group A Streptococcus
 

Staphlococcus areus
 

Β-hemolytic Streptococcus
 

Streptococcus pyogenes

· Question 72

 

A 60 year old male diabetic   patient presents with redness, tenderness, and edema of the left lateral   aspect of his face. His left eyelid is grossly edematous. He reports history   of a toothache in the past week which “is better.” His temperature is 100°F and   pulse is 102 bpm. The most appropriate initial action is to:

 

Start an oral antibiotic, refer the patient to a dentist immediately,     and follow up within 3 days
 

Order mandibular x-rays and question the patient about physical abuse
 

Start an oral antibiotic, mouth swishes with an oral anti-infective,     and an analgesic
 

Initiate a parenteral antibiotic and consider hospital admission

· Question 73

 

If a patient presents with a   deep aching, red eye and there is no discharge, you should suspect:

 

Iritis
 

Allergic conjunctivitis
 

Viral conjunctivitis

 

Bacterial conjunctivitis

· Question 74

 

The National Cholesterol   Education Program’s Adult Treatment Panel III recommends that the goal for   low density lipoproteins in high risk patients be less than:

 

160 mgdL
 

130 mgdL
 

100 mgdL
 

70 mgdL

· Question 75

 

A patient presents with   classic symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). He is instructed   on life style modifications and drug therapy for 8 weeks. Three months later   he returns, reporting that he was “fine” as long as he took the medication.   The most appropriate next step is:

 

Referral for surgical intervention such as a partial or complete     fundoplication
 

Dependent upon how sever the practitioner believes the condition
 

To repeat the 8 week course of drug therapy while continuing lifestyle     modifications
 

Investigation with endoscopy, manometry, andor pH testing

· Question 76

 

Group A β-hemolytic   streptococcal (GABHS) pharyngitis is most common in which age group?

 

Under 3 years of age
 

Preschool children
 

6 to 12 years of age
 

Adolescents

· Question 77

 

The most appropriate treatment   for a child with mild croup is:

 

A bronchodilator
 

An antibiotic
 

A decongestant
 

A cool mist vaporizer

· Question 78

 

A child complains that his   “throat hurts” with swallowing. His voice is very “throaty” and he is   hyperextending his neck to talk. Examination reveals asymmetrical swelling of   his tonsils. His uvula is deviated to the left. What is the most likely   diagnosis?

 

Peritonsillar abscess
 

Thyroiditis
 

Mononucleosis
 

Epiglottitis

· Question 79

 

Salmeterol (Servent) is   prescribed for a patient with asthma. What is the most important teaching   point about this medication?

 

It is not effective during an acute asthma attack.
 

It may take 2 to 3 days to begin working.
 

This drug works within 10 minutes.
 

This drug may be used by patients 6 years and older.

· Question 80

 

Which intervention listed below   is safe for long term use by an adult with constipation?

 

Bulk-forming agents
 

Stool softeners
 

Laxatives
 

Osmotic agents

· Question 81

 

A 40 year old presents with a   hordeolum. The nurse practitioner teaches the patient to:

 

Apply a topical antibiotic and warm compresses.
 

Apply cool compresses and avoid touching the hordeolum.
 

Use an oral antibiotic and eye flushes.
 

Apply light palpation to facilitate drainage.

· Question 82

 

Sarah has allergic rhinitis and   is currently being bothered by nasal congestion. Which of the following meds   ordered for allergic rhinitis would be most appropriate?

 

An antihistamine intranasal spray

 

A decongestant nasal spray
 

Ipratropium
 

Omalizumab

· Question 83

 

What is the Gold standard for   the diagnosis of asthma?

 

Patient’s perception of clogged airways
 

Validated quality-of-life questionnaires

 

Bronchoscopy
 

Spirometry

· Question 84

 

A patient complains of “an aggravating   cough for the past 6 weeks.” There is no physiological cause for the cough.   Which medication is most likely causing the cough?

 

Methyldopa
 

Enalapril
 

Amlodipine
 

Hydrochlorothiazide

· Question 85

 

Stacy, age 27, states that she   has painless, white, slightly raised patches in her mouth. They are probably   caused by:

 

Herpes simplex
 

Aphthous ulcers
 

Candidiasis
 

Oral cancer

· Question 86

 

Risk factors for acute otitis   media (AOM) include all of the following except:

 

Household cigarette smoke
 

Group daycare attendance
 

Sibling history of acute otitis media
 

African-American ethnicity
· Question 87

 

Which of the following can   result from chronic inflammation of a meibomian gland?

 

A chalazion
 

Uveitis
 

Keratitis
 

A pterygium

· Question 88

 

What conditions must be met for   you to bill “incident to” the physician, receiving 100% reimbursement from   Medicare?

 

You must initiate the plan of care for the patient

 

The physician must be on-site and engaged in patient care

 

You must be employed as an independent contractor

 

You must be the main health care provider who sees the patient

· Question 89

 

Of the following choices, the   least likely cause of cough is:

 

Asthma
 

Gastroesophageal reflux
 

Acute pharyngitis

 

Allergic rhinitis

· Question 90

 

The most common correlate(s)   with chronic bronchitis and emphysema is(are):

 

Familial and genetic factors
 

Cigarette smoking
 

Air pollution
 

Occupational environment

· Question 91

 

Which choice below is least   effective for alleviating symptoms of the common cold?

 

Antihistamines

 

Oral decongestants

 

Topical decongestants

 

Antipyretics

· Question 92

 

When teaching a patient with   hypertension about restricting sodium, you would include which of the   following instructions?

 

Diets with markedly reduced intakes of sodium may be associated with     other beneficial effects beyond blood pressure     control
 

Sodium restriction can cause serious adverse effects
 

A goal of 3 g of sodium chloride or 1.2 g of sodium per day is easily     achievable
 

Seventy-five of sodium intake is derived from processed foods

· Question 93

 

Which of the following heart   murmurs warrants the greatest concern?

 

Systolic murmur
 

Venous hum murmur
 

Diastolic murmur
 

Flow murmur

· Question 94

 

A patient presents with an   inflamed upper eyelid margin. The conjunctiva is red and there is particulate   matter along the upper eyelid. The patient complains of a sensation that   “there is something in my eye.” What is the diagnosis and how should it be   treated?

 

Hordeolum; treat with a topical antibiotic and warm compress
 

Conjunctivitis; treat with topical antibiotic and warm compresses
 

Blepharitis; treat with warm compresses and gentle debridement with a     cotton swab
 

Chalazion; refer to an ophthalmologist for incision and drainage

· Question 95

 

A 57-year-old male presents to   urgent care complaining of substernal chest discomfort for the past hour. The   EKG reveals ST elevations in Leads II, III, and AVF. The nurse practitioner   is aware that these changes are consistent with which myocardial infarction   territory?

 

Inferior wall
 

Anterior wall
 

Apical wall
 

Lateral wall

· Question 96

 

The nurse practitioner observes   a tympanic membrane that is opaque, has decreased mobility, and is without   bulging or inflammation. The least likely diagnosis for this patient   is:
 

Acute otitis media (AOM)
 

Otitis media with effusion
 

Mucoid otitis media
 

Serous otitis media

· Question 97

 

Alan, age 54, notices a bulge   in his midline every time he rises from bed in the morning. You tell him it   is a ventral hernia, also known as:

 

inguinal hernia

 

epigastric hernia
 

umbilical hernia
 

incisional hernia

· Question 98

 

A 58-year-old man is diagnosed   with Barrett’s esophagus after an endoscopy. He has no known allergies. Which   of the following medications is MOST appropriate to treat this patient’s   disorder?

 

Omeprazole
 

Ranitidine
 

An antacid
 

None of the above

· Question 99

 

Larry, age 66, is a smoker with   hyperlipidemia and hypertension. He is 6 months post-MI. To prevent   reinfarction, the most important behavior change that he can make is to:

 

Quit smoking
 

Maintain aggressive hypertension therapy
 

Stick to a low-fat, low-sodium diet
 

Continue with his exercise program

· Question 100

 

Risk factors for acute arterial   insufficiency include which of the following?

 

Recent myocardial infarction
 

Atrial fibrillation
 

Atherosclerosis
 

All of the above

· Question 101

 

Impetigo and folliculitis are   usually successfully treated with:

 

Systemic antibiotics
 

Topical antibiotics
 

Topical steroid creams
 

Cleansing and debridement

PLACE YOUR ORDER NOW

Nursing a profession or an occupation

write a 200 word message discussion . 100 word each question. must use the information from the chapter attached.

1- discuss whether nursing is a profession or an occupation. What can current and future nurses do to enhance nursing’s standing as a profession?

 

2- Select one of the middle range theories derived from a grand nursing theory and one derived from a non-nursing theory. Analyze both for ease of application to research and practice.

PLACE YOUR ORDER NOW

CHAPTER 1: Philosophy, Science, and Nursing

Melanie McEwen

Largely due to the work of nursing scientists, nursing theorists, and nursing scholars over the past five decades, nursing has been recognized as both an emerging profession and an academic discipline. Crucial to the attainment of this distinction have been numerous discussions regarding the phenomena of concern to nurses and countless efforts to enhance involvement in theory utilization, theory generation, and theory testing to direct research and improve practice.

A review of the nursing literature from the late 1970s until the present shows sporadic discussion of whether nursing is a profession, a science, or an academic discipline. These discussions are sometimes pleading, frequently esoteric, and occasionally confusing. Questions that have been raised include: What defines a profession? What constitutes an academic discipline? What is nursing science? Why is it important for nursing to be seen as a profession or an academic discipline?

Nursing as a Profession

In the past, there has been considerable discussion about whether nursing is a profession or an occupation. This is important for nurses to consider for several reasons. An occupation is a job or a career, whereas a profession is a learned vocation or occupation that has a status of superiority and precedence within a division of work. In general terms, occupations require widely varying levels of training or education, varying levels of skill, and widely variable defined knowledge bases. In short, all professions are occupations, but not all occupations are professions (Finkelman & Kenner, 2013).

Professions are valued by society because the services professionals provide are beneficial for members of the society. Characteristics of a profession include (1) defined and specialized knowledge base, (2) control and authority over training and education, (3) credentialing system or registration to ensure competence, (4) altruistic service to society, (5) a code of ethics, (6) formal training within institutions of higher education, (7) lengthy socialization to the profession, and (8) autonomy (control of professional activities) (Ellis & Hartley, 2012; Finkelman & Kenner, 2013; Rutty, 1998). Professions must have a group of scholars, investigators, or researchers who work to continually advance the knowledge of the profession with the goal of improving practice (Schlotfeldt, 1989). Finally, professionals are responsible and accountable to the public for their work (Hood, 2010). Traditionally, professions have included the clergy, law, and medicine.

Until near the end of the 20th century, nursing was viewed as an occupation rather than a profession. Nursing has had difficulty being deemed a profession because many of the services provided by nurses have been perceived as an extension of those offered by wives and mothers. Additionally, historically, nursing has been seen as subservient to medicine, and nurses have delayed in identifying and organizing professional knowledge. Furthermore, education for nurses is not yet standardized, and the three-tier entry-level system (diploma, associate degree, and bachelor’s degree) into practice that persists has hindered professionalization because a college education is not yet a requirement. Finally, autonomy in practice is incomplete because nursing is still dependent on medicine to direct much of its practice.

On the other hand, many of the characteristics of a profession can be observed in nursing. Indeed, nursing has a social mandate to provide health care for clients at different points in the health–illness continuum. There is a growing knowledge base, authority over education, altruistic service, a code of ethics, and registration requirements for practice. Although the debate is ongoing, it can be successfully argued that nursing is an aspiring, evolving profession (Finkelman & Kenner, 2013; Hood, 2010; Judd, Sitzman, & Davis, 2010). See Link to Practice 1-1 for more information on the future of nursing as a profession.

Link to Practice 1-1: The Future of Nursing

The Institute of Medicine (IOM, 2011) recently issued a series of sweeping recommendations directed to the nursing profession. The IOM explained their “vision” is to make quality, patient-centered care accessible for all Americans. Recommendations included a three-pronged approach to meeting the goal.

The first “message” was directed toward transformation of practice and precipitated the notion that nurses should be able to practice to the full extent of their education. Indeed, the IOM advocated for removal of regulatory, policy, and financial barriers to practice to ensure that “current and future generations of nurses can deliver safe, quality, patient-centered care across all settings, especially in such areas as primary care and community and public health” (p. 30).

A second key message related to the transformation of nursing education. In this regard, the IOM promotes “seamless academic progression” (p. 30), which includes a goal to increase the number and percentage of nurses who enter the workforce with a baccalaureate degree or who progress to the degree early in their career. Specifically, they recommend that 80% of RNs be BSN prepared by 2020. Last, the IOM advocated that nurses be full partners with physicians and other health professionals in the attempt to redesign health care in the United States.

These “messages” are critical to the future of nursing as a profession. Indeed, standardization of entry level into practice at the BSN level, coupled with promotion of advanced education and independent practice, and inclusion as “leaders” in the health care transformation process, will help solidify nursing as a true profession.

Nursing as an Academic Discipline

Disciplines are distinctions between bodies of knowledge found in academic settings. A discipline is “a branch of knowledge ordered through the theories and methods evolving from more than one worldview of the phenomenon of concern” (Parse, 1997, p. 74). It has also been termed a field of inquiry characterized by a unique perspective and a distinct way of viewing phenomena (Butts, Rich, & Fawcett, 2012; Parse, 1999).

Viewed another way, a discipline is a branch of educational instruction or a department of learning or knowledge. Institutions of higher education are organized around disciplines into colleges, schools, and departments (e.g., business administration, chemistry, history, and engineering).

Disciplines are organized by structure and tradition. The structure of the discipline provides organization and determines the amount, relationship, and ratio of each type of knowledge that comprises the discipline. The tradition of the discipline provides the content, which includes ethical, personal, esthetic, and scientific knowledge (Northrup et al., 2004; Risjord, 2010). Characteristics of disciplines include (1) a distinct perspective and syntax, (2) determination of what phenomena are of interest, (3) determination of the context in which the phenomena are viewed, (4) determination of what questions to ask, (5) determination of what methods of study are used, and (6) determination of what evidence is proof (Donaldson & Crowley, 1978).

Knowledge development within a discipline proceeds from several philosophical and scientific perspectives or worldviews (Litchfield & Jonsdottir, 2008; Newman, Sime, & Corcoran-Perry, 1991; Parse, 1999; Risjord, 2010). In some cases, these worldviews may serve to divide or segregate members of a discipline. For example, in psychology, practitioners might consider themselves behaviorists, Freudians, or any one of a number of other divisions.

Several ways of classifying academic disciplines have been proposed. For instance, they may be divided into the basic sciences (physics, biology, chemistry, sociology, anthropology) and the humanities (philosophy, ethics, history, fine arts). In this classification scheme, it is arguable that nursing has characteristics of both.

Distinctions may also be made between academic disciplines (e.g., physics, physiology, sociology, mathematics, history, philosophy) and professional disciplines (e.g., medicine, law, nursing, social work). In this classification scheme, the academic disciplines aim to “know,” and their theories are descriptive in nature. Research in academic disciplines is both basic and applied. Conversely, the professional disciplines are practical in nature, and their research tends to be more prescriptive and descriptive (Donaldson & Crowley, 1978).

Nursing’s knowledge base draws from many disciplines. In the past, nursing depended heavily on physiology, sociology, psychology, and medicine to provide academic standing and to inform practice. In recent decades, however, nursing has been seeking what is unique to nursing and developing those aspects into an academic discipline. Areas that identify nursing as a distinct discipline are as follows:

PLACE YOUR ORDER NOW

 

DQ-W2 – NURSING INFORMATIC

Discussion: Interaction Between Nurse Informaticists and Other Specialists

Nature offers many examples of specialization and collaboration. Ant colonies and bee hives are but two examples of nature’s sophisticated organizations. Each thrives because their members specialize by tasks, divide labor, and collaborate to ensure food, safety, and general well-being of the colony or hive.

Of course, humans don’t fare too badly in this regard either. And healthcare is a great example. As specialists in the collection, access, and application of data, nurse informaticists collaborate with specialists on a regular basis to ensure that appropriate data is available to make decisions and take actions to ensure the general well-being of patients.

In this Discussion, you will reflect on your own observations of and/or experiences with informaticist collaboration. You will also propose strategies for how these collaborative experiences might be improved.

PLACE YOUR ORDER NOW

                                                  To Prepare: 

Review the Resources and reflect on the evolution of      nursing informatics from a science to a nursing specialty.

Consider your experiences with nurse Informaticists or technology specialists within your healthcare organization

 

Post a description of experiences or observations about how nurse informaticists and/or data or technology specialists interact with other professionals within your healthcare organization. Suggest at least one strategy on how these interactions might be improved. Be specific and provide examples. Then, explain the impact you believe the continued evolution of nursing informatics as a specialty and/or the continued emergence of new technologies might have on professional interactions.

PLACE YOUR ORDER NOW

                                    

                                   Required Readings

McGonigle, D., & Mastrian, K. G. (2017). Nursing informatics and the foundation of knowledge (4th ed.). Burlington, MA: Jones & Bartlett Learning.

· Chapter 25, “The Art of Caring in Technology-Laden Environments” (pp. 525–535)

· Chapter 26, “Nursing Informatics and the Foundation of Knowledge” (pp. 537–551)

American Nurses Association. (2018). Inclusion of recognized terminologies supporting nursing practice within electronic health records and other health information technology solutions. Retrieved from https://www.nursingworld.org/practice-policy/nursing-excellence/official-position-statements/id/Inclusion-of-Recognized-Terminologies-Supporting-Nursing-Practice-within-Electronic-Health-Records/

Glassman, K. S. (2017). Using data in nursing practice. American Nurse Today, 12(11), 45–47. Retrieved from https://www.americannursetoday.com/wp-content/uploads/2017/11/ant11-Data-1030.pdf 

Macieria, T. G. R., Smith, M. B., Davis, N., Yao, Y., Wilkie, D. J., Lopez, K. D., & Keenan, G. (2017). Evidence of progress in making nursing practice visible using standardized nursing data: A systematic review. AMIA Annual Symposium Proceedings, 2017, 1205–1214. Retrieved from https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC5977718/

Office of the National Coordinator for Health Information Technology. (2017). Standard nursing terminologies: A landscape analysis. Retrieved from https://www.healthit.gov/sites/default/files/snt_final_05302017.pdf 

Rutherford, M. A. (2008). Standardized nursing language: What does it mean for nursing practice? Online Journal of Issues in Nursing, 13(1), 1–12. doi:10.3912/OJIN.Vol13No01PPT05.

Note: You will access this article from the Walden Library databases.

Thew, J. (2016, April 19). Big data means big potential, challenges for nurse execs. Retrieved from https://www.healthleadersmedia.com/nursing/big-data-means-big-potential-challenges-nurse-execs

Wang, Y. Kung, L., & Byrd, T. A. (2018). Big data analytics: Understanding its capabilities and potential benefits for healthcare organizations. Technological Forecasting and Social Change, 126(1), 3–13. doi:10.1016/j.techfore.2015.12.019.

Note: You will access this article from the Walden Library databases.

Required Media

Laureate Education (Executive Producer). (2012). Data, information, knowledge and wisdom continuum [Multimedia file]. Baltimore, MD: Author. Retrieved from http://mym.cdn.laureate-media.com/2dett4d/Walden/NURS/6051/03/mm/continuum/index.html

Public Health Informatics Institute. (2017). Public Health Informatics: “shipping” information for better health [Video file]. Retrieved from https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=q1gNQ9dm0zg.

Public Health Informatics Institute. (2017). Public Health Informatics: knowledge “architecture” [Video file]. Retrieved from https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=sofmUeQkMLU.

MY SPECIALTY: MENTAL HEALTH NURSE PRACTITIONER

CHECK THE DOCUMENT, AND BOOK  ATTCHED BELLOW , AND CHECK THE REQUIRED READINGS TO COMPLETE THE DISCUSSION QUESTION CORRECTLY.